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Sveta_85 [38]
3 years ago
14

Which of the following comes after a period of recession in the business cycle? A. Stagflation B. A drought C. A boom D. Recover

y
Business
1 answer:
morpeh [17]3 years ago
7 0
<h3>Hello there!</h3>

Your question asks what comes after the period of recession in the business cycle.

<h3>Answer: D). Recovery</h3>

The reason why answer choice "D). Recovery" is correct because this comes after the period of recession in the business cycle.

Recession is like a "slow down" in the activity of a business. Which means that they aren't receiving any income, GDP, investments, and etc. This would cause a business to decrease while a lot of expenses that the business is getting are increasing. By expensive, I mean the cost to keep the business running and things of that sort.

Businesses go through a time of recession; therefore, they need to "recover" from that. And that's why recovery is the next stage. A business must recover from the "recession" period if they want to keep the business up and running. If the business doesn't recover, then the business will fail.

Once the business can recover from the recession period, then the business can succeed in their plans and execute them, while seeing the profits that they expected to make.

<h3>I hope this helps!</h3><h3>Best regards, MasterInvestor</h3>
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An association had a fund balance of 75 on January 1 and 60 on December 31. At the end of every month during the year, the assoc
ValentinkaMS [17]

Answer: 0.11 or 11%

Explanation: The dollar-weighted return (DWR) measures the rate of return of an investment or a portfolio, taking under consideration the timing of flows. for every deposit, add the resulting amount to the start balance, and for every withdrawal, subtract that quantity. Check the attachment for the solution.

Once you've got both numbers, divide the first by the second. which will offer you the dollar-weighted investment return, which you'll then multiply by 100 to give you a return in percentage terms.

3 0
3 years ago
Succulent Juice Company manufactures and sells premium tomato juice by the gallon. Succulent just finished its first year of ope
Naddik [55]

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Number of Gallons Produced 80,000

Number of Gallons Sold 70,000

Sales Price $3.00/gallon

Unit Product Cost (variable costing) $1.45/gallon

Contribution Margin $84,000

Total Fixed Manufacturing Overhead $?

Total Fixed Selling & Administrative $25,000

Variable Selling & Administrative $?Total Fixed Selling & Administrative $25,000

Variable Selling & Administrative $?

Inventory value under absorption costing $29,500

T<u>he difference between the absorption and variable costing method is that the first one includes the fixed manufacturing overhead in the product cost.</u>

Absorption= direct material + direct labor + total unitary overhead

Variable=  direct material + direct labor + unitary variable overhead

First, we will calculate all the missing information:

Sales= 3*70,000= 210,000

Total variable cost= 210,000 - 84,000= 126,000

Unitary varaible cost= 126,000/70,000= $1.8 per unit

Unitary variable selling and administrative= 1.8 - 1.45= 0.35

Unitary inventory production cost (absorption)= 29,500/10,000= $2.95

Unitary fixed manufacturing cost= 2.95 - 1.45= 1.5

Now, we can determine the income statement under absorption and variable costing method:

A<u>bsorption costing:</u>

Sales= 210,000

COGS= 70,000*2.95= (206,500)

Gross profit= 3,500

Total Fixed Selling & Administrative= (25,000)

Variable Selling & Administrative= (0.35*70,000)=

Net operating income= (46,000)

<u>Variable costing method:</u>

Sales= 210,000

Total variable cost= (126,000)

Contribution margin= 84,000

Total Fixed Selling & Administrative= (25,000)

Total fixed manufacturing overhead= (80,000*1.5)= (120,000)

Net operating income= (61,000)

4 0
3 years ago
Kara wants to build a business. She has plenty of capital and potential investors and partners. She wants to avoid the burden of
Akimi4 [234]

Answer:

The correct answer is B.

Explanation:

The fact that Kara has plenty of capital means she most likely would not need financial intervention from any other party.

It is not logical for her to bring in a partner who will share profits when she has invested all the capital. Because she will enjoy all the proceeds from the business alone, she will also bear all liabilities.  

Cheers!

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Gander, an apparel company, is known to be a profit-hungry company. It lands in a controversy when it comes to light that the co
Otrada [13]

Answer:

Legal but Unethical

Explanation:

Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that Gander's business conduct is Legal but Unethical. It is legal because since it is a developing country there is most likely no law against the amount that the company's must pay employees. On the other hand it is unethical because the company is taking advantage of the necessity of the workers and is paying them nonliving wages.

If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

7 0
3 years ago
Suppose the September Eurodollar futures contract has a price of 96.4. You plan to borrow $50m for 3 months in September at LIBO
bija089 [108]

Answer:

Explanation:

Definition of simple terminologies ;

  • A contractual agreement is an agreement which is made on future exchanges in order to buy or sell goods at a fixed price at a specified time period.
  • LIBOR stands for London interbank offered rate which is the rate at which  banks borrow money from other banks in london market. this rate is a fixed term by the british bankers association.

a) The implied LIBOR of the September Eurodollar futures of 96.4 is =  100 96.4 /400-=0.9%

(b) As we want to borrow money, it implies buying protection against high interest rates, which means low Eurodollar future prices. We will short the Eurodollar contract.

c) Number of contact to be entered into = One Eurodollar contract which is based on a $1 million 3-month deposit. As such, entering into hedge a loan of $50M, will automatically implies entering into 50 short contracts.

d) A true 3-month LIBOR of 1% means an annualized position (annualized by market conventions) of 1% x 4 = 4%. Therefore, our 50 short contracts will pay: [96.4 − (100 − 4) × 100 × $25] × 50 = $50,000.

The increased interest rate has  made the loan more expensive as such, the loss to exposure  will be compensated hence we have to pay the following amount ; ($50,000,000 x 0.01) - $50,000

= $450,000

6 0
3 years ago
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