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cupoosta [38]
3 years ago
12

A newly formed country in the Caribbean has no high tariffs, yet other countries find it difficult to trade with the new country

because of its requirements for labeling, product testing, and certifications. These restrictions can best be classified as
Business
1 answer:
atroni [7]3 years ago
8 0
 non-tariff barriers
<span>
Non tariff barriers are a way to restrict </span>trade<span> using </span>trade barriers<span> in a form other than a </span>tariff<span>. </span>Non tariff barriers include r<span>equirements for labeling, product testing, product certifications,</span>quotas, embargoes, sanctions, levies and other restrictions that would restrict import of goods and services.
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A partial list of Waterways' accounts and their balances for the month of November 2016 follows:
lesya [120]

Answer:

Total current assets = $697,750

Explanation:

The partial balance sheet is as follows:

Waterways Corporation

Balance Sheet (Partial)

For the month of November 2016

<u>Details                                                                $                         $          </u>

<u>Current Assets</u>

Cash                                                           260,000

Accounts Receivable                                 275,000

Finished Goods Inventory, November       68,800

Raw Materials Inventory, November          52,700

Prepaid Expenses                                    <u>    41,250  </u>

Total current assets                                                              697,750

Note:

Cash is the most liquid of assets.

Accounts receivable which should be collected within 30 to 60 days are less liquid than cash, but more liquid than inventory.

Finished Goods Inventory which is expected to be sold and converted to cash within one year, and Raw Materials Inventory which is expected to be converted to finished good within one year are more liquid than Prepaid expense.

Therefore, the least liquid among current assets’ item above is the Prepaid Expense as it is cash paid for services not yet received..

4 0
3 years ago
A U.S. firm holds an asset in Great Britain and faces the following scenario:
Lady_Fox [76]

Answer:

C) Sell £2,278.13 forward at the 1-year forward rate, F1($/£), that prevails at time zero.

Explanation:

given data

                     State 1           State 2               State 3

Probability      25%            50%                      25%

Spot rate      $ 2.50 /£    $ 2.00 /£            $ 1.60 /£

P*                   £ 1,800       £ 2,250             £ 2,812.50

P                     $4,500          $4,500               $4,500

solution

company holds portfolio in pound. so to get hedge, they will sell that of the same amount.

we get here average value of the portfolio that is

The average value of the portfolio = £ (0.25*1800 + 0.5*2250 + 0.25*2812.5)

The average value of the portfolio = 2278.13

so correct option is C) Sell £2,278.13 forward at the 1-year forward rate, F1($/£), that prevails at time zero.

3 0
3 years ago
When a scientific number is the result of a measurement using equipment such as a balance, the last digit is ______?
zhuklara [117]
The answer is <span>the last digit is "estimated".
</span>
The Scientific notation or configuration shows a number in exponential notation, by replacing some portion of the number with E+n, where E (which remains for Exponent) duplicates the first number by 10 to the nth power. For instance, a 2-decimal Scientific notation shows 12345678901 as 1.23E+10, which is 1.23 times 10 to the tenth power. Hope this helps!
5 0
3 years ago
2. Chico Co. sold $4 million of 10-year bonds on December 31, 2015, with interest payable June 30 and December 31 at an annual r
Aleonysh [2.5K]

Answer:

The requirement of the question is provided below:

a.  What were the proceeds received by Chico upon the sale of the bonds?  

b.  Prepare the entry made by Chico to record the sale of the bonds on December 31, 2015.

The proceeds from the issue is $4,498,488.41

The entries are:

Dr Cash                     $4,498,488.41

Cr Bonds payable                              $4,000,000

Cr Premium on bonds payable           $498,488.41

Explanation:

The first task here is to determine the proceeds from the issue, which can be done using the present value formula in excel.

=pv(rate,nper,pmt,fv)

rate is the effective rate of 10% divided by 2,since coupon is paid twice a year.

nper is the time to maturity of 10 years multiplied by 2

pmt is the coupon payment paid twice a year, that is :12%/2*$4000,000=$240,000

fv is the value expected by investors upon redemption that is $4 million

=-pv(5%,20,240000,4000000)

pv=$4,498,488.41

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A food worker vomits a few hours before he is scheduled to work, but he feels better in
Mila [183]
It’s B or D i would think but I can’t be for positive.. sorry if it’s wrong
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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