Answer: socially wasteful
Explanation:
Product differentiation is when a product is being distinguished from similar products in order to make it more appealing and therefore drive consumers choice.
It should be noted that critics of market-oriented economies may argue that product differentiation is socially wasteful.
Answer:
9.14%
Explanation:
The computation of the weighted average cost of capital is shown below:-
Debt = $500,000 × 1.02
= $0.51 m
Preferred = 40,000 × $34
= $1.36 m
Common = 104,000 × $20
= $2.08 m
Total = $0.51 m + $1.36 m + $2.08 m
= $3.95 m
So, Weighted average cost of capital = ($2.08 ÷ $3.95 m × 0.11) + ($1.36 m ÷ $3.95 m × 0.08) + (($0.51 m ÷ 3.95 m × 0.07 × (1 - 0.34))
= 0.057924 + 0.027544 + 0.005965
= 0.091433
or 9.14%
Therefore for computing the weighted average cost of capital we simply applied the above equation.
An effective marketing mix, which is suitable for the services industry, is the seven P's.
<h3>What is a marketing mix?</h3>
A strategy of different mixes of external and internal factors used by a firm for the purpose of achieving its organizational goals, intended to increase the sales, is known as a marketing mix.
Hence, option B holds true regarding a marketing mix.
Learn more about a marketing mix here:
brainly.com/question/14591993
#SPJ1
Answer:
The higher the GDP of a country, the more equal its income distribution. FALSE
Explanation:
The country with the highest GDP, the US, has a medium to high Gini coefficient in income inequality (0.39), and the higher the number, the worse off. China which has the second highest GDP, has a very high coefficient (0.51). The countries with the lowest coefficient are Slovak Republic (0.24), Slovenia (0.24) and Czech Republic (0.25), and they are not necessarily very wealthy nations.
Several developing nations, e.g. Uruguay (0.37), Ukraine (0.26), Uganda (0,.37), etc., all have better income distribution than the US and China. Although generally, countries with high GDP have a a higher income distribution than average, it is not always that way.
Answer:
D. the buyer must pay the expense.
Explanation:
Whenever a contract is prepared for a sale of any real estate transaction then both the parties are binding towards the contract. As that is signed by both of them which creates a legal right to get the action done from each other.
Here ,in the contract it is clearly mentioned that the buyer is responsible for the title insurance expense.
This clearly provides the right to the seller to validate such right and ask the buyer to pay for the expenses of the insurance.
Thus, the buyer in the given instance must pay the expense of the insurance.
