Looking at the force-time graph, wouldn't the force be integral fdt between 0 and 10s, a sort of "smoothed out pulse" ? And it looks like a familiar bell shaped curve. doesn't that produce a turning effect/torque and isn't there something about a circular analogue to F=ma in newtonian linear mechs ???
Looks like a difficult question for 5 points
Answer a) is incorrect as sound does not travel in a vacuum.
The options are;
a. V2 equals 2V1.
b. V2 equals (V1)/2.
c. V2 equals V1.
d. V2 equals (V1)/4.
e. V2 equals 4V1.
Answer:
Option A: V2 equals 2V1
Explanation:
Since the flow is steady, then we can say;
mass flow rate at input = mass flow rate at output.
Formula for mass flow rate is;
m' = ρVA
Thus;
At input;
m'1 = ρ1•V1•A1
At output;
m'2 = ρ2•V2•A2
So, m'1 = m'2
Now, we are told that the density of the fluid decreases to half its initial value.
Thus; ρ2 = (ρ1)/2
Since m'1 = m'2, then;
ρ1•V1•A1 = (ρ1)/2•V2•A2
Now, the pipe is uniform and thus the cross section doesn't change. Thus;
A1 = A2
We now have;
ρ1•V1•A1 = (ρ1)/2•V2•A1
A1 and ρ1 will cancel out to give;
V1 = (V2)/2
Thus, V2 = 2V1