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Gekata [30.6K]
3 years ago
15

Can someone actually answer this question pls its my 3rd time posting it and ill ive gotten was wrong or answers that make no se

nce. Pls explain your work!!!!! THANKS

Mathematics
2 answers:
andre [41]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

(-2+-5) equals -7.

Because the signs are the same, we dont change it.

(3+5) equals 8. Same like the other equation, the signs are the same so we do not change it.

Now we do (-7+8) The answer will be 1. Lets use a little graph since its hard to explain.

-8 -7 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

Mark -7 anyway you want. (Circle it, draw a line under it, what ever you want.)

Now Move the line 8 times.

When you do that your line will stop at 1.

And thats how you do it.

Step-by-step explanation:

Valentin [98]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

All you have to do is Subtract the first number of both equation so 2-3= 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

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olchik [2.2K]

Answer:

16

Step-by-step explanation:

Evaluate the two in order to compare them.

2^10=2*2*2*2*2*2*2*2*2*2=1024

2^6=2*2*2*2*2*2=64

The question says how many more TIMES. This tells us that we need to see how many times does 64 go into 1024. To do this, divide 1024/64=16

The answer is 16! Hope this helps ^^

3 0
3 years ago
A consulting firm has received 2 Super Bowl playoff tickets from one of its clients. To be fair, the firm is randomly selecting
Soloha48 [4]

Answer:

Therefore the only statement that is not true is b.)

Step-by-step explanation:

There employees are 6 secretaries, 5 consultants and 4 partners in the firm.

a.) The probability that a secretary wins in the first draw

= \frac{number \hspace{0.1cm} of \hspace{0.1cm} secreataries}{total \hspace{0.1cm} number \hspace{0.1cm} of \hspace{0.1cm} employees}  = \frac{6}{15}

b.) The probability that a secretary wins a ticket on second draw.  It has been given that a ticket was won on the first draw by a consultant.

p(secretary wins on second draw | consultant  wins on first draw)

=\frac{p((consultant \hspace{0.1cm} wins \hspace{0.1cm} on \hspace{0.1cm} first \hspace{0.1cm}draw)\cap( secretary\hspace{0.1cm} wins\hspace{0.1cm} on second \hspace{0.1cm}draw))}{p(consultant \hspace{0.1cm} wins \hspace{0.1cm} on \hspace{0.1cm} first \hspace{0.1cm}draw)}

= \frac{\frac{5}{15}  \times \frac{6}{14}}{\frac{5}{15} }  = \frac{6}{14}  .

The probability that  a ticket was won on the first draw by a consultant a secretary wins a ticket on second draw  = \frac{6}{15} is not true.

The probability that a secretary wins on the second draw  = \frac{number \hspace{0.1cm} of  \hspace{0.1cm} secretaries  \hspace{0.1cm} remaining } { number  \hspace{0.1cm} of  \hspace{0.1cm} employees  \hspace{0.1cm} remaining}  = \frac{6 - 1}{15 - 1}  = \frac{5}{14}

c.) The probability that a consultant wins on the first draw  =

\frac{number \hspace{0.1cm} of  \hspace{0.1cm} consultants  \hspace{0.1cm}  } { number  \hspace{0.1cm} of  \hspace{0.1cm} employees  \hspace{0.1cm} }  = \frac{5 }{15}  = \frac{1}{3}

d.) The probability of two secretaries winning both tickets

= (probability of a secretary winning in the first draw) × (The probability that a secretary wins on the second draw)

= \frac{6}{15}  \times \frac{5}{14}  = \frac{1}{7}

Therefore the only statement that is not true is b.)

5 0
3 years ago
How would you translate this situation below into an algebraic expression?
Natasha2012 [34]
Dime value: $0.10
Nickel value: $0.05

For this word problem, you are asked to create an algebraic expression (an equation) for the unknown variables. 

Now, we know that a dime is worth $0.10 or 10 cents and a nickel is worth $0.05 or 5 cents. So, all you would have to do is create an equation that takes those values into account. 
5n + 10d

Your algebraic expression would be B. 5n + 10d

I hope this helps!
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3 years ago
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natita [175]
The answer is D i think
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3 years ago
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strojnjashka [21]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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