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timama [110]
3 years ago
13

g Floyd Corporation had a projected benefit obligation of $3,142,000 and plan assets of $3,308,000 at January 1, 2020. Floyd als

o had a net actuarial loss of $438,720 in accumulated OCI at January 1, 2020. The average remaining service period of Floyd's employees is 7.10 years. Compute Floyd's minimum amortization of the actuarial loss. What amount should pension expense be debited due to minimum amortization of the actuarial loss
Business
1 answer:
Lorico [155]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Floyd Corporation

a. Projected benefit obligation, 01/01/2020 =  $ 3,142,000

b. Plan asset value, 01/01/2020   =                  $ 3,308,000

Corridor:

10% of greater of (a) or (b) [(b) in this case] =     $330,800

Actuarial loss =                                                    ($438,720)

a) Minimum Amount to be amortized =              $107,920

Average remaining service life of employees = 7.10  years

b) Amount to include in pension cost for 2020 = $15,200

Explanation:

Floyd is required to use the Corridor approach to determine the amount of gains and losses to recognize (amortize) in pension expense each period.  The corridor approach is a technique used to reduce the amounts of gains and losses to be recognized as an adjustment to pension expense.

With this technique gains and losses in excess of 10 percent of the greater of the projected benefit obligation or the market-related asset value are recognized.  The 10 percent is the corridor.

Any excess over the 10 percent should be amortized over the average remaining service period of active employees expected to participate in the plan.  This amount represents the minimum amount a company can recognize.   No gain or loss is recognized when the gains or losses are not in excess of 10% of the appropriate amount.

The corridor reduces the volatility of the pension expense.

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The Mixing Department of Complete Foods had 62,000 units to account for in October. Of the 62,000 units, 38,000 units were compl
Harman [31]

Answer:

The total equivalent units of production are as follows:

For direct materials = 62,000 units

For conversion costs = 42,000 units

Explanation:

These can be computed by preparing statements of equivalent units as follows:

<u>Statement of Equivalent Units (EU) (Weighted average)</u>

<u>For October</u>

<u>For Materials</u>

Particulars       Units (a)       Complete (%) (b)     EU (c = a * b)

Transferred        38,000                 100%                    38,000

Ending WIP      <u>  24,000 </u>                100%                  <u>  24,000 </u>

Total                  <u> 62,000 </u>                                           <u> 62,000 </u>

<u>Statement of Equivalent Units (EU) (Weighted average)</u>

<u>For October</u>

<u>For Conversion Costs</u>

Particulars       Units (a)       Complete (%) (b)     EU (c = a * b)

Transferred        38,000                100%                      38,000

Ending WIP      <u>  24,000 </u>                20%                       <u>  4,800 </u>

Total                  <u> 62,000 </u>                                             <u> 42,000 </u>

<u>Conclusion</u>

The total equivalent units of production are as follows:

For direct materials = 62,000 units

For conversion costs = 42,000 units

5 0
3 years ago
Cash received before services are performed may be recorded as a debit to a cash account and a credit to a liability account is
Lana71 [14]

Answer:

The correct answer is: Unearned Revenue.

Explanation:

Unearned Revenues are advance payments that a company or individual collects for products and services that it has not yet rendered or delivered. Other terms for unearned revenue are advanced payments or deferred revenue. Unearned income must be debited to a cash account and credited to a liability account in compliance with the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP).

7 0
3 years ago
Madison Company owned an asset that had cost $44,000. The company sold the asset on January 1, 2016 for $16,000. Accumulated dep
BlackZzzverrR [31]

Answer:

A. A $16,000 cash inflow in the investing activities section of the cash flow statement.

Explanation:

The gain on sale of asset is,

Gain on disposal = Selling price - Net Book value of asset

Gain on disposal = 16000 - (44000 - 32000) = $4000

However, this gain is a non cash item as it is only reported on the books and there is no cash inflow or outflow that relates to this gain. Thus, option C and D become invalid as there is no cash related to this disposal gain as it is merely a book item.

A sale of asset doesnot increase but rather decrease total assets so option B become invalid. The correct answer is A as the asset is being sold for 16000 thus a cash inflow of 16000 is taking place.

3 0
3 years ago
Jenny manages sales dealership of high-end luxury brand of automobile. Her target market is limited to a specific social class,
Alborosie

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": cheapening his brand .

Explanation:

Businesses of luxury objects such as advanced-technology vehicles have a differential advantage related to other carmakers. Most of their customers prefer those cars because they give them a certain status in society and are accessible to a few people because of the high prices.

Then, <em>if Jeff's companies decide to manufacture cars for the middle class, the dealer risks cheapening the brand but the number of customers could exponentially increase.</em>

7 0
4 years ago
The Surf's Up issues 1,000 shares of 6%, $100 par value preferred stock at the beginning of 2020. All remaining shares are commo
motikmotik

Answer:

12,000 dividends for preferred stock

6,000 dividends for common stock

Explanation:

1000 shares $100 = $100,000 preferred stock

preferred dividend: 100,000 x 6% = 6,000

2020 no dividends preferred stock acumulates 6,000

2021 18,000 dividends delcared

     -6,000 preferred stock dividend for 2021

   <u> - 6,000 preferred stock dividend for 2020</u>

    6,000 dividends for common stock

Total preferred 6,000 + 6,000 = 12,000

6 0
4 years ago
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