Answer:
Unitary Contribution margin= $0.6
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
LMN Company produces a product that sells for $1. The company has production costs of $600,000, half of which are fixed costs. Assuming the production and sales of 750,000 units.
Variable cost= 600,000/2= $300,000
Unitary variable cost= 300,000/750,000= $0.4
Unitary Contribution margin= 1 - 0.4= $0.6
Total contribution margin= $450,000
Answer:
The correct answer to the following question is option B) decrease.
Explanation:
Regressive tax is that of tax which is imposed in such manner that when the income level in the economy increases , the average tax rate would decrease. This type of tax has heavy burden on the low income people as it takes high proportion of their income. So it can be said here that there is an inverse relationship between tax payer's ability to pay ( which can be measured in income , assets or consumption) and the tax rates imposed.
Answer:
a. the development of railroad cars that could haul cattle.
Explanation:
The abrupt end of long distance cattle drives in 1885 was primarily due to the development of railroad cars that could haul cattle.
It was the advent of expanding rail road lines that terminated the cattle drive through Kansas because the end points of the cattle trail shifted to meet expanding railroad lines.
It was logical that as the railroads expanded to meet the cattle drive, one had to give way to the other because cattle do stray and trains could haul cattle
Answer: Joint venture
Explanation: A joint venture can be defined as a business entity, that is created by two or more firms by shared ownership or sharing in risk and returns. The joint venture is usually done by the firms for targeting new emerging markets to increase their customer base.
In the given case, Arboren is a new company and is formed by the joint ownership of three existing firms.
Hence, from the above we can conclude that this is an example of Joint venture.
Answer:
4.76%
Explanation:
The requirement in this question is determining the discount rate which gives the same present value in both cases since discount rates discount future cash flows to present value terms.
PV of a pertuity=annual cash flow/discount rate
PV of a pertuity=$17,000/r
PV of ordinary annuity=annual cash flow*(1-(1+r)^-n/r
PV of ordinary annuity=$30,000*(1-(1+r)^-18/r
$17,000/r=$30,000*(1-(1+r)^-18/r
multiply boths side by r
17000=30,000*(1-(1+r)^-18
divide both sides by 30000
17000/30000=1-(1+r)^-18
0.566666667=1-(1+r)^-18
by rearraging the equation we have the below
(1+r)^-18=1-0.566666667
(1+r)^-18=0.433333333
divide indices on both sides by -18
1+r=(0.433333333)^(1/-18)
1+r=1.047554315
r=1.047554315-1
r=4.76%
