Answer:
$1 = 122.84 Hungarian Forint
Explanation:
<em>The purchasing power parity theory states the future spot rate and and he current spot exchange rate between two currencies can be linked to the relative inflation rate between the two currencies. This also known as the law of one price.
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The model is given as follows:
S = So× (1+Fc)/(1+Fh)
Fc - inflation rate in Hungary - 6.9%
Fh- Inflation rate in the US- 2.8%
S- Future spot rate- ?
So- Current spot rate-188.13
Expected exchange rate one year from now
118.13× (1.069)/(1.028)
=122.8414
= 122.84 Hungarian Forint
$1 = 122.84 Hungarian Forint
If the FED want to stabilize output then FED has to decrease the money supply if the net exports were increased.
Given that there was a large increase in net exports.
We are required to advise the FED about the work he should do to stabilize the output.
The increase in exports shows that there had huge amount of money in the economy. So to stabilize the output FED has to decrease the output and to decrease the output FED has to decrease the money supply.
FED can decrease the money supply in various ways as under:
- Increase in interest rate.
- Selling of government securities.
There are many more ways to decrease the money supply. When the money supply decreases the people in the country may not be able to produce more goods and the production of goods decreases.
Hence if the FED want to stabilize output then FED has to decrease the money supply if the net exports were increased.
Learn more about money supply at brainly.com/question/3625390
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The percent change in quantity demanded of a good divided by the percent change in income, all other tings unchanged, is the price elasticity of demand. This is the equation you will use when finding the price elasticity of demand. Price elasticity of demand is measuring the demand of a product or service when nothing changes besides the price.
At the end of five years, the total number of dollars in this investment would be $137,843.79.
<h3>What would be the value of the account at the end of 5 years?</h3>
When the account is compounded bi-monthly, it means that the amount invested and the interest already earned increases in value by 1% every two months.
The formula for calculating the amount that would be in the investment after years is>
FV = P (1 + r)^nm
- FV = Future value
- P = Present value
- R = interest rate
- m = number of compounding
- N = number of years
$24,000(1.01)^(5x6) = $137,843.79
To learn more about future value, please check: brainly.com/question/18760477
The correct answer is the firm's component cost of debt for purposes of calculating the wacc is 7.32%.
