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Arada [10]
3 years ago
13

The classical dichotomy is useful for analyzing the economy because in the long run nominal variables are heavily influenced by

developments in the monetary system, and real variables are not. True or false?
Business
1 answer:
Contact [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The answer is: True

Explanation:

First of all, the classical dichotomy in economics assumes that real variables of the economy such as output of goods and services and real interest rates are not influenced by what happens to their nominal counterparts, such as the monetary value of output and nominal interest rate.  It doesn´t consider inflation or the nominal supply, in other words money supply is neutral in the economy (because its value is adjusted to inflation).

The real problem with this theory, at least in the short run, is that in real life money supply, interest rates and inflation do affect the GDP of a country. When the money supply of an economy is increased then aggregate demand also increases. More money equals more demand. That happens because the prices of goods and services doesn´t adjust as fast as a change in the money supply. Also this theory doesn´t consider the monetary circuit theory about money being "created" by the banking system every time a loan is made.

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One of the scarce resources that constrain our behavior is time. each of us has only 24 hours in a​ day, and we must allocate ou
evablogger [386]
Scarce resources are those resources that have limited availability in combination with greater productive uses. Time is a scarce resource as well as all have limited time in our life. In addition, out of the limited time we have, a significance portion of that time is spent on unproductive tasks such as sleeping, bathing among other tasks. As more and more time is spent on a given activity the opportunity cost of that activity in terms of other activities rises. Opportunity cost in this case is the benefit that a person could have received by involving himself in a  given task, but gave up to take up another task.
7 0
3 years ago
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You purchase a bond with an clean price of $1,129. The bond has a coupon rate of 10 percent, and there are 4 months to the next
marta [7]

Answer:

The answer is "1145.66".

Explanation:

Using formula:

\text{Dirty price = Clean price + accrued interest}\\\\

                  = 1,129 +100\times 0.5\times \frac{2}{6} \\\\= 1,129 +50\times \frac{2}{6} \\\\= 1,129 + \frac{100}{6} \\\\= \frac{6774+100}{6} \\\\= \frac{6874}{6} \\\\=1145.66

OR

=\$1,129+(10\% \ of\ 1000)\times \frac{2}{12}\\\\=\$1,129+(\frac{10}{100} \times \ 1000)\times \frac{2}{12}\\\\=\$1,129+(100)\times \frac{2}{12}\\\\=\$1,129+ \frac{200}{12}\\\\=\$1,129+ 16.666667\\\\=\$1,145.666667\\\\

8 0
3 years ago
Suppose annual inflation rates in the u.s. and mexico are expected to be 6% and 80%, respectively, over the next several years.
jeka94
<span>The answer is $.00102</span>
7 0
3 years ago
A company would like to evaluate two incentive schemes that take effect once the worker exceeds standard performance. In the fir
Lerok [7]

Answer:

B) plan 1 : worker earning  y = x - 0.14  ,  unit labor = \frac{x-(0.14)}{x}

   plan 2 : worker earning y  = 0.5x + 0.5, unit labor = (0.5x + 0.5) / x

C) At 128%

D ) plan D IS PREFERABLE

Explanation:

In the first case Benefits are split : 30% to worker , 70% to company ( up to 120% ) performance

In the second case benefits 50% go to the worker and 50% go the company

B) The equations for worker earnings and normalized unit labor costs for each scheme

Plan 1 :

y  ( percentage earning of worker ) = 1

unit labor cost = Y / 1

y = 0 - 30

unit labor = 0.3 / x

y = x - 0.14  therefore unit labor = \frac{x-(0.14)}{x}

plan 2 :

y  ( percentage earning of worker ) = 1,   y  = 0.5x + 0.5

unit labor cost :  Y / 1  =  (0.5x + 0.5) / x

C )  The point at which the two plans break even

0.5x + 0.5 = x - 0.14

0.5 + 0.14 = x - 0.5x

0.64 = x(1 - 0.5 )

x = 0.64 / 0.5 =  1.28 = 128%

D) The company would prefer plan 1

5 0
3 years ago
A commercial bank has excess reserves of $5000 and a required reserve ratio of 20 percent. it makes a loan of $6000 to a borrowe
diamong [38]

Answer:

The first bank will be short of reserves in the amount of $1,000

Explanation:

According to the given data, we have the following:

bank excess reserves=$5,000

reserve ratio=20%

Total Reserve= $5000+(20%*$5,000)= $6,000

Therefore, to calculate the reserve shortage we would have to make the following calculation:

reserve shortage=$6,000 - $5,000 = $1,000

The first bank will be short of reserves in the amount of $1,000

5 0
3 years ago
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