Answer:
35 I think
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: 11:11
Step-by-step explanation:
The ratio is 11 nickles to 11 dimes, Take away the names of the coins and there is your answer. (If i'm correct)
Answer: option a.

Explanation:
A <em>shrink</em> of a function is a <em>shrink</em> on the vertical direction. It means that for a certain value of x, the new function will have a lower value, in the intervals where the function is positive, or a higher value, in those intervals where the function is negative. This is, the image of the new function is shortened in the vertical direction.
That is the reason behind the rule:
- given f(x), the graph of the function a×f(x), when a > 1, represents a vertical stretch of f(x),
- given f(x), the graph of the function a×f(x), when a < 1, represents a vertical shrink of f(x).
So, we just must apply the rule: to find a shrink of an exponential growth function, multiply the original function by a scale factor less than 1.
Since it <em>is a shrink of</em> <em>an exponential growth function</em>, the base must be greater than 1. Among the options, the functions that meet that conditon are a and b:

Now, following the rule it is the function with the fraction (1/3) in front of the exponential part which represents a <em>shrink of an exponential function</em>.
Slope = (-12 - 43)/(4 +7) = -55/11 = -5
y = mx + b
43 = -5(-7) + b
43=35+b
b = 8
equation
y = -5x + 8
First we need the equivalence between cups and pints to solve this question, the equivalence is:
1 cup is 0.5 pint
So we can use a rule of three simple, direct proportion to solve the problem, we change the fraction 1/4 = 0.25 to ease calculations:
1 cup ----> 0.5 pint
0.25 cup ---> x
x = (0.25)(0.5)/1
x = 0.125
Therefore 1/4 cups is equivalent to 0.125 pints