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Crazy boy [7]
3 years ago
10

Rooney, Inc. is considering the purchase of a new machine costing $700,000. The machine's useful life is expected to be 8 years

with no salvage value. The straight-line depreciation method will be used. The net increase in annual after tax cash flow is expected to be $156,000. Rooney estimates its cost of capital to be 12%. (The present value of a $1 annuity for 8 years at 12% is 4.968, and the present value of $1 to be received in 8 years is 0.404.) The net present value of the investment in the machine under consideration is:
Business
1 answer:
Fiesta28 [93]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

NPV = $74,951.80

Explanation:

The net present value is the present value of after tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.

NPV can be calculated using a financial calculator:

Cash flow in year 0 =  $700,000

Cash flow each year from 1 year 8 =  $156,000

I = 12%

NPV = $74,951.80

To find the NPV using a financial calacutor:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

3. Press compute

I hope my answer helps you

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Greengage, Inc., a successful nursery, is considering several expansion projects. All of the alternatives promise to produce an
Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Answer:

A. Project A

B. Project A has lowest Standard Deviation

C. Project D

Explanation:

A.

The higher the range, the more risky the project is. Based on the table, project A has the smallest range, and therefore is the least risky based on range.

B.

The standard deviation is not scale-free, i.e. it is not adjusted for the level of returns. Hence, a project that has the same distribution of returns, but a higher average return, will have a higher standard deviation. But the project is not any more risky. Hence, the standard deviation might not be an appropriate measure of risk.

C.

The Coefficient of Variation (CV) is calculated as follows:

CV = Standard deviation / expected return

Applying this formula, the coefficient of variation for each project is:

Project A: 2.9% / 12.0% = 0.242

Project B: 3.2% / 12.5% = 0.256

Project C: 3.5% / 13.0% = 0.269

Project D: 3.0% / 12.8% = 0.23 4

Based on the coefficient of variation, project D has the lowest coefficient. It means that the project has the lowest risk per unit of return generated, and thus is the best project and should be chosen.

4 0
3 years ago
Listed below are some provisions that are often contained in bond indentures. Which of these provisions, viewed alone, would ten
monitta

Answer:

2. A given bond is subordinated to other classes of debt.

Explanation:A bond Indenture is a legally approved contract between a bond holder(the buyer of the bond) and a bond issuer(the original owner of the bond,who sold it to the bond holder).

Subordinated bond is also known as junior Securities or subordinated debt are bonds that are lower in rank compared to other bonds,a subordinated bond holder is only paid when other senior bond have been completely paid out.

4 0
3 years ago
Which economist most supported the idea that poor workers would
Alla [95]
Thomas Robert Malthus is the economist who supported it the most
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To increase traffic on a website you should be more focused towards your content and how do you present your content.

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5. Connect all of the pertinent posts together.

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7. Remove all harmful backlinks and GSC-disavow them.

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8 0
2 years ago
Problem 9-7B Calculate the issue price of a bond and prepare amortization schedules (LO9-5, 9-7) [The following information appl
andrey2020 [161]

Answer:

Answer is given below.

Explanation:

Solution 1:

Chart Values are based on:      

n= (15 Years*2) 30 Half years

i= (7%/2) 3.50% Semi annual

Cash Flow Table Value * Amount = Present Value

Principal 0.356278 * $7,90,000 = $2,81,460

Interest (Annuity) [$790,000*7%*6/12] 18.392045 * $27,650 = $5,08,540

Price of Bonds  $7,90,000

Bond Amortization Schedule

Date Cash interest Interest Expense Chanage in Carrying Value Carrying value

01-Jan-21    $7,90,000

30-Jun-21 $27,650 $27,650 $0 $7,90,000

31-Dec-21 $27,650 $27,650 $0 $7,90,000

Solution 2:

Chart Values are based on:      

n= (15 Years*2) 30 Half years

i= (8%/2) 4.00% Semi annual

Cash Flow Table Value * Amount = Present Value

Principal 0.308319 * $7,90,000 = $2,43,572

Interest (Annuity) [$790,000*7%*6/12] 17.292033 * $27,650 = $4,78,125

Price of Bonds  $7,21,696

Bond Amortization Schedule

Date Cash interest Interest Expense Change in Carrying Value Carrying value

01-Jan-21    $7,21,696

30-Jun-21 $27,650 $28,868 $1,218 $7,22,914

31-Dec-21 $27,650 $28,917 $1,267 $7,24,181

Solution 3:

Chart Values are based on:      

n= (15 Years*2) 30 Half years

i= (6%/2) 3.00% Semi annual

Cash Flow Table Value * Amount = Present Value

Principal 0.411987 * $7,90,000 = $3,25,470

Interest (Annuity) [$790,000*7%*6/12] 19.600441 * $27,650 = $5,41,952

Price of Bonds  $8,67,422

Bond Amortization Schedule

Date Cash interest Interest Expense Change in Carrying Value Carrying value

01-Jan-21    $8,67,422

30-Jun-21 $27,650 $26,023 -$1,627 $8,65,794

31-Dec-21 $27,650 $25,974 -$1,676 $8,64,118

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4 0
3 years ago
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