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Nikolay [14]
2 years ago
15

Proprietary funds recognize _________.a. Expenses when the fund incurs a liability for goods or services. b. Expenditures when t

he fund incurs a liability for goods or services. c. Expenditures when the fund uses goods or services. d. Expenses when the fund uses goods or services.
Business
1 answer:
xenn [34]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The answer is Expenses when the fund uses goods or services.

Explanation:

A proprietary fund is used in governmental accounting to account for activities that involve business-like interactions, either within the government or outside of it.

The required financial statements for a proprietary fund are as follows:

Statement of net position,

Statement of revenues, expenses, and changes in fund net position

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Given the following cost and activity observations for Bounty Company's utilities, use the high-low method to determine Bounty's
Svetlanka [38]

Answer:

Variable cost per unit= $0.10

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Cost Machine Hours

March $3,106 15,176

April 2,668 9,558

May 2,892 11,947

June 3,538 17,899

<u>To calculate the variable cost under the high-low method, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Variable cost per unit= (Highest activity cost - Lowest activity cost)/ (Highest activity units - Lowest activity units)

Variable cost per unit= (3,583 - 2,668) / (17,899 - 9,558)

Variable cost per unit= $0.10

8 0
3 years ago
You are a newspaper publisher. You are in the middle of a one-year rental contract for your factory that requires you to pay $50
Anettt [7]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

Fixed cost is

= $500,000 + $1,000,000

= $1,500,000

And, the marginal cost is

= $0.25 + $0.10

= $0.35 per paer

Now

as we know that

AFC = FC ÷ Q

Now for At 1,000,000 papers,

AFC is

= 1,500,000 ÷ 1,000,000

= $1.50/mo

At 800,000 , it would be

AFC = 1,500,000 ÷ 800,000

= $1.875/mo

MC = $0.35 per paper  and the same is not changed

Now for break even, the average total cost is

ATC = AFC + AVC

ATC = FC ÷ Q + VC ÷ Q

VC = MC × Q

ATC = FC ÷ Q + MC

ATC = FC ÷ Q + 0.35

At Q = 1,000,000,

ATC = 1.50 + 0.35

ATC = $1.85

At Q = 800,000 , it would be

ATC = 1.875 + 0.35

=  $2.225

As it can be seen that

The AFC changes from 1.50 to 1.875 which shows an increment of 0.375.

The MC remains constant or same  at 0.35 as the printing and delivery costs per paper are remain same

And, The minimum amount that we must charge to break even rises i.e. from 1.85 to 2.225. That is a rise of 0.375

6 0
3 years ago
The FOURX Corp. has purchased $50,000 of experimental equipment. The anticipated salvage value is $5500 at the end of its 5-year
Anestetic [448]

Answer:

b. NPW(SL): $33,738; NPW(DDB): $37,068; Recommendation: DDB

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

As we know that

Present value is

=  [Cash Flow ÷ (1 + Rate of Interest)^Year]

where,

Rate of Interest = 10%

Under Straight-line depreciation:

Beginning book value = $50,000

Salvage value = $5,500

So, the depreciationper year is

=  [($50,000 - $5,500) ÷ 5]

= $8,900

<u>Year    Beginning   Depreciation  End                 Present value </u>

<u>            book value                  book value of depreciation </u>

1            $50,000      $8,900        $41,100             $8,090.91

2           $41,100         $8,900        $32,200           $7,355.37

3           $32,200       $8,900         $23,300           $6,686.70

4           $23,300       $8,900         $14,400           $6,078.82

5           $14,400        $8,900         $5,500              $5,526.20

                                                                                  $33,738.00

Under Double declining depreciation:

Depreciation rate per year = (1 ÷ Useful  Life) × 100

= 1 ÷ 5 × 100

= 20%

Now for double-declining, the rate is doubled

So,

= 20% × 2

= 40%

<u>Year    Beginning   Depreciation  End                 Present value </u>

<u>            book value                  book value of depreciation </u>

1            $50,000      $20,000       $30,000           $18,181.82

2           $30,000       $12,000       $18,000            $9,917.36

3           $18,000       $7,200         $10,800            $5,409.47

4           $10,800       $4,320         $6,480             $2,950.62

5           $6,480       $980              $5,500            $608.50

                                                                                $37,068

5 0
3 years ago
A company's board of directors votes to declare a cash dividend of $1.65 per share of common stock. The company has 33,000 share
umka21 [38]

Answer:

E) $45,375

Explanation:

This is because Authorized shares are the total shares that the company can issue.

There is a difference between issued and outstanding shares of 500 shares, this may be because these shares are currently held by the company itself and thus dividends are payable only on outstanding shares

This gives us 27,500 * 1.65 = $43,375

4 0
3 years ago
Nichols Corporation's value of operations is equal to $600 million after a recapitalization (the firm had no debt before the rec
Daniel [21]

Answer:

The answer is $750 millions

Explanation:

After recapitalization, the Weight of Debts of Nichols Corporation is 25%. Hence, its Weight of Equity Capital is: 100% - 25% = 75%.

The formula of Value of Operations as follows:

Value of Operations = Weight of Debts x Value of Debts + Weight of Equity Capital x Value of Equity Capital

Because Nichols Corporation's value of operations is equal to $600 million after recapitalization, we have the following equation with S as the value of equity after the recap:

600 = 25% x 150 + 75% x S

=> S = (600 - 25% x 150) / 75% = 750

8 0
3 years ago
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