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Masja [62]
2 years ago
11

Sales Mix and Break-Even Analysis Einhorn Company has fixed costs of $105,000. The unit selling price, variable cost per unit, a

nd contribution margin per unit for the company’s two products follow: Product Selling Price Variable Cost per Unit Contribution Margin per Unit QQ $50 $35 $15 ZZ 60 30 30 The sales mix for products QQ and ZZ is 40% and 60%, respectively. Determine the break-even point in units of QQ and ZZ.
Business
1 answer:
natali 33 [55]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The break-even point in units of QQ and ZZ is 1,750 units and 2,625 units respectively

Explanation:

In this question, we use the combined break even point which is shown below:

Combined break even point = Fixed cost ÷ weighatge contribution margin per unit

where,

Weighted  contribution margin per unit = $15 × 40% + $30 × 60%

= $6 + $18

= $24

And, the fixed cost is $105,000

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= $105,000 ÷ $24

= 4,375 units

For products QQ = 4,375 units × 40% = 1,750 units

For product ZZ = 4,375 units × 60% = 2,625 units

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2 years ago
What is financial literature​
Vanyuwa [196]
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8 0
3 years ago
I need this done by today
tankabanditka [31]
What is the problem
4 0
3 years ago
If Wild Widgets, Inc., were an all-equity company, it would have a beta of 0.9. The company has a target debt-equity ratio of .4
Veronika [31]

Answer:

a. 6.5%

b. 13.06%

c. 10.91%

Explanation:

a.

Cost of debt of a bond is yield to maturity. Yield to maturity is the rate of return that a investor actually receives or a borrows actually pays on a bond. It is long term return or payment which is expressed in annual term.

Formula for yield to maturity is as follow

Yield to maturity = [ C + ( F - P ) / n ] / [ (F + P ) / 2 ]

By placing values in the formula

Assuming the bond face value is $1,000

Yield to maturity = [ (1000x7.2) + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / [ ( 1,000 + $1,090 ) / 2 ]

Yield to maturity = [ $72 + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = [ $72 - $4.5 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = $67.5 / $1,045

Yield to maturity = 6.5%

So, the cost of Debt is 6.5%

b.

As 0.9 is the unlevered beta, We need Levered beta due to restructuring of capital.

Beta Levered = Beta Unlevered x ( 1 + ( 1 - tax rate ) x Debt / Equity)

Beta Levered = 0.9 x ( 1 + ( 1 - 0.35 ) x 0.4 )

Beta Levered = 1.134

Cost of equity can be calculated using CAPM

CAPM calculated the expected return on an equity investment based on the risk free rate, market premium and risk beta of the investment.

Formula for CAPM is as follow

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market premium)

As we know the Risk premium is the difference of market return and risk free rate.

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market Return - Risk free Rate )

Ra = Rf + β ( Rm - Rf )

Ra = 4.1% + 1.134 ( 12% - 4.1% )

Ra = 13.06%

Cost of Equity is 13.06%

c.

WACC is the average cost of capital of the firm based on the weightage of the debt and weightage of the equity multiplied to their respective costs.

According to WACC formula

WACC = ( Cost of equity x Weightage of equity )+ ( Cost of debt ( 1- t) x Weightage of debt )

Placing the values in formula

If the debt to equity 0.4  the equity value should be 1 and total capital is 1.4 ( 1 + 0.4 )

WACC = ( 13.06% x 1 / 1.4 )+ ( 6.5% ( 1- 0.35) x 0.4 / 1.4 ) = 9.71% + 1.2% = 10.91%

WACC is 10.91%

4 0
2 years ago
Booth's fixed assets were used to only 50% of capacity during 2019, but its current assets were at their proper levels in relati
hoa [83]

This question is incomplete. The complete question is given below:

The Booth Company's sales are forecasted to double from $1,000 in 2016 to $2,000 in 2017. Here is the December 31, 2016, balance sheet:

Cash  $  100  Accounts payable  $   50

Accounts receivable  200  Notes payable  150

Inventories  200  Accruals  50

Net fixed assets  500  Long-term debt  400

Common stock  100

Retained earnings  250

Total assets  $1000  Total liabilities and equity  $1000

Booth's fixed assets were used to only 50% of capacity during 2016, but its current assets were at their proper levels in relation to sales. Spontaneous liabilities and all assets except fixed assets must increase at the same rate as sales, and fixed assets would also have to increase at the same rate if the current excess capacity did not exist. Booth's after-tax profit margin is forecasted to be 3% and its payout ratio to be 50%. What is Booth's additional funds needed (AFN) for the coming year? Round your answer to the nearest dollar.

Answer:

Booth's additional funds needed (AFN) for the coming year = 370

Explanation:

Additional Funds Needed (AFN):

Additional Funds Needed (AFN) is a way of calculating how much new funding will be required, so that the firm can realistically look at whether or not they will be able to generate the additional funding and therefore be able to achieve the higher sales level.

Formula of AFN:

AFN = [ ( A / S0 ) * ΔS - ( L / S0 ) * ΔS - MS1 * ( RR ) ]

where

A = Assets linked with sales

Formula for Assets:

Assets = Cash + Account receivable + Inventories

As

Cash = 100

Account receivable = 200

Inventories = 200

therefore by putting the values in the above formula, we get

= 100 + 200 + 200

= 500

ΔS = Difference in sales between S0 and S1

S0 = Sales of last year

S1 = Total projected sales for next year

As the Booth Company's sales are forecasted to double from $1,000 in 2016 to $2,000 in 2017 so

ΔS = 2000 - 1000

ΔS = 1000

L = Spontaneous liabilities

Formula for Spontaneous liabilities:

L = Accounts payable + Accruals

therefore by putting the values in the above formula, we get

L = 50 + 50

L = 100

MS1 = Projected net income

RR = Retention Ratio

M = 0.05

RR = 1 - 0.7

RR = 0.3

therefore by putting the values in the above formula, we get

Additional Funds Needed = ( 500 / 1000 ) * 1000 - ( 100 / 1000 ) * 1000 - 0.05 * 2000 * 0.3

Additional Funds Needed = 370

Therefore, Booth's additional funds needed (AFN) for the coming year = 370

6 0
2 years ago
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