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professor190 [17]
3 years ago
11

Ratio analysis:___________.

Business
1 answer:
Mnenie [13.5K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

D. Serves as an initial evaluation of the adequacy of an investment's expected cash flows.

Explanation:

Ratio analysis serves as an initial evaluation of the adequacy of an investment's expected cash flows.

Ratio analysis can be defined as the analysis of different pieces of financial information in the financial statements of a business.

Ratio analysis is used to get insight about the financial wellbeing of a business. It is used by analysts to determine various aspects of a business, such as its profitability, liquidity, and solvency.

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________ are transacted between international businesses and their banks, between banks, and between governments when it is desi
Oliga [24]

Answer: Swaps

Explanation:

A foreign exchange swap is a written agreement between two parties with different currencies to exchange such currencies at a specific period of time. In a swap deal, one party to the agreement gives out currency to the other party while also collecting collecting currency from such party. The written agreement usually contains such details like the interest on the amount of exchange, as well as the loan value of one currency against the other.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If sales are $904,000 in 2019 and this represents a 13% increase over sales in 2018, what were sales in 2018?
Allisa [31]
<span>The sales in 2018 will be $800,000. Let the sales in 2018 be x and 13% increase shows 1.13x and the calculation will be done by dividing 904000 with 1.13 and the answer will be 800000. This is simple calculation as the question is showing that the sales in 2018 were less so that answer is also checked.</span>
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A wealthy customer has been asked by his neighbor to invest in the private placement of a "start-up" technology company as a ven
Ivanshal [37]

Options:

I because these securities are not registered with the SEC, such an offering would be illegal in the United States

II because the securities are not registered with the SEC, they can only be resold in the public markets if the company effects a registered primary distribution and is current in its SEC filings

III public resale of these securities can only occur if the customer holds the securities for 6 months "at risk" and then sells the securities in measured quantities

IV these securities can only be resold by the customer to underwriters that will buy the securities into their inventory and then register them with the SEC

Answer:

II because the securities are not registered with the SEC, they can only be resold in the public markets if the company effects a registered primary distribution and is current in its SEC filings

III public resale of these securities can only occur if the customer holds the securities for 6 months "at risk" and then sells the securities in measured quantities

Explanation:

Option I is wrong because this type of operations is completely legal, and they are called private placements.

Option IV is also wrong because the underwriters do not register the stocks with the SEC, the company must be public in order for it to be registered  and their stocks publicly traded.

Option II is correct because you can privately resell the stocks, but the market is very limited.

Option III is correct because if the company does turn public, then the investor must hold the stocks for 6 months "at risk" (no puts purchased) before being able to sell them on public markets.

6 0
3 years ago
On September 3, 2021, the Robers Company exchanged equipment with Phifer Corporation. The facts of the exchange are as follows:
GREYUIT [131]

Based on the information given the appropriate journal entries to record the exchange for both Robers and Phifer are:

Robers entries

Debit Equipment (new) $77,000  

Debit Accumulated Depreciation $111 000  

Debit Cash $19,000  

Credit Equipment  $190,000

Credit Gain on Sale $17,000

($77,000+$111,000+$19,000-$190,000)

Phifer's entries

Debit Equipment(new) $96,000  

Debit Accumulated depreciation $119,000  

Debit Loss on Sale $14,000

($210,000+$19,000-$96,000-$119,000)

Credit Equipment  $210,000

Credit Cash  $19,000

Learn more about journal entries here:brainly.com/question/24696035

4 0
3 years ago
EB1. 
aleksandr82 [10.1K]

Answer:

$110

Explanation:

The contribution margin per unit refers to the revenue available per unit to pay for fixed costs and profits.

The formula for contribution margin is selling price per minus variable costs per unit.

, i.e., contribution margin = selling price -variable costs

=$150-$40

=$110

8 0
4 years ago
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