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Tems11 [23]
3 years ago
9

Evaluate a - b for a equals -62 and b equals 49.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Cloud [144]3 years ago
3 0
<span>Simplify and you will get -111</span>
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20

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Will mark brainliest for any help!
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5000

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
Which expression is equal to zero? 9 + (– 27) ÷ (– 3)
GrogVix [38]

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-27÷(-3)-9

=0

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
A professor has learned that three students in his class of 20 will cheat on the final exam. He decides to focus his attention o
balu736 [363]

Answer:

a

P(X \ge 1) = 0.509

b

P(X  \ge 1) = 0.6807

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The number of students in the class is  N  =  20  (This is the population )

   The number of student that will cheat is  k =  3

   The number of students that he is focused on is  n  =  4

Generally the probability distribution that defines this question is the  Hyper geometrically distributed because four students are focused on without replacing them in the class (i.e in the generally population) and population contains exactly three student that will cheat.

Generally  probability mass function is mathematically represented as

      P(X = x) =  \frac{^{k}C_x * ^{N-k}C_{n-x}}{^{N}C_n}

Here C stands for combination , hence we will be making use of the combination functionality in our calculators  

Generally the that  he finds at least one of the students cheating when he focus his attention on four randomly chosen students during the exam is mathematically represented as

      P(X \ge 1) =  1 - P(X \le 0)

Here  

   P(X \le 0) =  \frac{ ^{3} C_0 *  ^{20 - 3} C_{4- 0}}{ ^{20}C_4}

   P(X \le 0) =  \frac{ ^{3} C_0 *  ^{17} C_{4}}{ ^{20}C_4}

   P(X \le 0) =  \frac{ 1 *  2380}{ 4845}

    P(X \le 0) =  0.491

Hence

    P(X \ge 1) =  1 - 0.491

     P(X \ge 1) = 0.509

Generally the that  he finds at least one of the students cheating when he focus his attention on six randomly chosen students during the exam is mathematically represented as

    P(X \ge 1) =  1 - P(X \le 0)

   P(X  \ge 1) =1- [  \frac{^{k}C_x * ^{N-k}C_{n-x}}{^{N}C_n}]

Here n =  6

So

    P(X  \ge 1) =1- [  \frac{^{3}C_0 * ^{20 -3}C_{6-0}}{^{20}C_6}]

    P(X  \ge 1) =1- [  \frac{^{3}C_0 * ^{17}C_{6}}{^{20}C_6}]

    P(X  \ge 1) =1- [  \frac{1  *  12376}{38760}]

    P(X  \ge 1) =1- 0.3193

    P(X  \ge 1) = 0.6807

   

5 0
3 years ago
Lamy can paint 84 portraits in 6 weeks. at this rate , how many portraits can he paint in 2 weeks
lilavasa [31]

Answer:

28 portraits

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's first figure out how many portraits Lamy can paint in 1 week, which is his <u>unit rate</u>. To calculate this, we just have to divide the number of portraits he paints by the amount of time it takes him to paint them.

In this case, the former quantity is 84 portraits, and the latter quantity is 6 weeks, so his unit rate is \frac{84 \text \: portraits}{6 \text \: weeks} = 14 paintings per week.

Now, we know that in 1 week, Lamy can paint 14 portraits. Therefore, since this is a <u>directly proportional relationship</u>, all we have to do to find how many portraits he can paint is 2 weeks is double the unit rate. This is because in a directly proportional relationship, if you multiply one variable by a number, you have to multiply the other by the same number to maintain equality, and here we are multiplying weeks by 2 so we need to multiply paintings by 2 as well.

Thus, Lamy can paint 14 · 2 = 28 paintings in 2 weeks.

Hope this helps!

7 0
2 years ago
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