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Kazeer [188]
3 years ago
13

Solve the following formula for m v2=3Pmn

Mathematics
1 answer:
Molodets [167]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

m= 0 /(−3np+v2 )

Step-by-step explanation:

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He is incorrect in this statement because 38 and 40 both have factors, other than 1 x itself. Prime numbers are numbers the only have 1 factor pair, and that is 1 x itself. Factors are the numbers you multiply to get the end result, and an example is 10x4=40. The factors of 40 are 8x5, 4x10, 2x20, and of course, 1x40. The factors of 38 are 2x19, and 1x38.

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