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Andrews [41]
3 years ago
9

How many dimes equal the value of 6 quarters?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Aleonysh [2.5K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

15 dimes

Step-by-step explanation:

One dime equals: 10

six quarters: 150

150 divided by 10:

15 dimes!

Hope this helps!!!!

GREYUIT [131]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

15 dimes

Step-by-step explanation:

6 quarters = 6 * .25 = 1.50

a dime equals .10

d * .10 = 1.50

Divide each side by .10

d = 1.50/.10

d = 15

15 dimes

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For a certain​ candy, 20​% of the pieces are​ yellow, 15​% are​ red, 20​% are​ blue, 20​% are​ green, and the rest are brown. ​a
OLEGan [10]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Based on the question we are given the percentages of each of the types of candies in the bag except for brown. Since the sum of all the percentages equals 75% and brown is the remaining percent then we can calculate that brown is (100-75 = 25%) 25% of the bag. Now we can show the probabilities of getting a certain type of candy by placing the percentages over the total percentage (100%).

  • Brown: \frac{25}{100}
  • Yellow or Blue: \frac{20}{100} +\frac{20}{100} = \frac{40}{100}  ....add the numerators
  • Not Green:  \frac{80}{100}.... since the sum of all the rest is 80%
  • Stiped:  \frac{25}{100} .... there are 0 striped candies.

Assuming the <u><em>ratios/percentages</em></u> of the candies stay the same having an infinite amount of candy will not affect the probabilities. That being said in order to calculate consecutive probability of getting 3 of a certain type in a row we have to multiply the probabilities together. This is calculated by multiplying the numerators with numerators and denominators with denominators.

  • 3 Browns: \frac{25*25*25}{100*100*100} = \frac{15,625}{1,000,000} = \frac{1.5625}{100}

  • the 1st and 3rd are red while the middle is any. We multiply 15% * (total of all minus red which is 85%) * 15% like so.

\frac{15*85*15}{100*100*100} = \frac{19,125}{1,000,000} = \frac{1.9125}{100}

  • None are Yellow: multiply the percent of all minus yellow three times.

\frac{80*80*80}{100*100*100} = \frac{512,000}{1,000,000} = \frac{51.2}{100}

  • At least 1 green: multiply the percent of green by 100% twice, since the other two can by any

\frac{20*100*100}{100*100*100} = \frac{200,000}{1,000,000} = \frac{20}{100}

4 0
3 years ago
What is the value of 32 tens
trapecia [35]
320 has the same value as 32 tens
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How to estimate the quotient of 49.3 divided by 6
prisoha [69]
That would be 8 because the answer is 8.21 and you round down to 8
5 0
2 years ago
How many times is 1 trillion greater than 1 billion
vodomira [7]

1 trillion can be written as 1,000,000,000,000

1 billion can be written as 1,000,000,000

There are 3 more 0’s in 1 trillion than there are in 1 billion, so therefore 1 trillion is 1,000 times greater than 1 billion.

If you have any further questions feel free to ask.

Hope this helps

8 0
3 years ago
I am having trouble with mean absolute deviation and whisker box plots. I try looking at examples, but it keeps stressing me out
Arada [10]

Answer:

Mean absolute deviation is a statistical measure of dispersion. Whisker box-plot is a graphical method of quartile based divided data

Step-by-step explanation:

Mean Absolute Deviation is a statistical measure of dispersion or variability  in data. It denotes average level of deviation of observations from the central mean.

It is calculated using following formula : ( Σ | X - X' | ) ÷ N ; where X = individual observations, X' = mean, N = no. of observations

Whisker Box-plot is a graphical method of representing group of numerical data through their quartiles. This also consists line extensions from boxes, showing scatter beyond lower & upper quartile.

8 0
3 years ago
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