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antiseptic1488 [7]
3 years ago
14

Question 2

Mathematics
1 answer:
Masteriza [31]3 years ago
6 0
1.1, 0.10299, 0.1038, 0.9 im pretty sure
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Ann and Ruth bowled together and had a combined score of 410 points. Ann's score was 44 points less than Ruth's score. Write a s
masha68 [24]

Answer:

x=y-44 and x+y=410

Step-by-step explanation:

So, you want to use the equations x=y-44 and  x+y=410 when x is Ann's score and y is Ruth's score. This is because x (Ann's score) is Ruth's score (y) but 44 less, so you subtract y-44 to get x. Then x+y would also have to equal 410 so that's the other equation. Graphing the 2 equations gets you to the point  (183,227) in which Ann's score is 183 points and Ruth's score is 227 points.

3 0
3 years ago
I need help, so can I get help please???​
notsponge [240]

Answer:

The answer is 5.5, 6.0 and 8.0

7 0
3 years ago
What is the coefficient in the term k?<br> A.0<br> B.1<br> C.2<br> D.k
DaniilM [7]

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

because the is an invisible 1 in an letter

5 0
3 years ago
2. Tyson multiplies 75 by 1.15. Which number might Tyson be trying to find? |A 115%of 75||| B 15% of 75||| C 11.5% of 75||| D 1.
Yanka [14]

Answer:

115% of 75 is equivalent to 75 by 1.15 = 8.625 , This two are equivalent

Step-by-step explanation:

Given as :

Tyson multiplies 75 by 1.15

I .e 75 × 1.15 = 86.25

Now A ) 115% of 75 = \frac{115}{100} × 75 = 86.25

B) 15% of 75 = \frac{15}{100}  × 75 = 11.25

C) 11.5% of 75 = \frac{11.5}{100} × 75 = 8.625

D) 1.15% of 75 = \frac{1.15}{100} × 75 = 0.8625

∵ 115% of 75 is equivalent to 75 by 1.15   ,  so Tyson try to find the option A

Answer

7 0
3 years ago
A 5-card hand is dealt from a perfectly shuffled deck. Define the events: A: the hand is a four of a kind (all four cards of one
TiliK225 [7]

In a hand of 5 cards, you want 4 of them to be of the same rank, and the fifth can be any of the remaining 48 cards. So if the rank of the 4-of-a-kind is fixed, there are \binom44\binom{48}1=48 possible hands. To account for any choice of rank, we choose 1 of the 13 possible ranks and multiply this count by \binom{13}1=13. So there are 624 possible hands containing a 4-of-a-kind. Hence A occurs with probability

\dfrac{\binom{13}1\binom44\binom{48}1}{\binom{52}5}=\dfrac{624}{2,598,960}\approx0.00024

There are 4 aces in the deck. If exactly 1 occurs in the hand, the remaining 4 cards can be any of the remaining 48 non-ace cards, contributing \binom41\binom{48}4=778,320 possible hands. Exactly 2 aces are drawn in \binom42\binom{48}3=103,776 hands. And so on. This gives a total of

\displaystyle\sum_{a=1}^4\binom4a\binom{48}{5-a}=886,656

possible hands containing at least 1 ace, and hence B occurs with probability

\dfrac{\sum\limits_{a=1}^4\binom4a\binom{48}{5-a}}{\binom{52}5}=\dfrac{18,472}{54,145}\approx0.3412

The product of these probability is approximately 0.000082.

A and B are independent if the probability of both events occurring simultaneously is the same as the above probability, i.e. P(A\cap B)=P(A)P(B). This happens if

  • the hand has 4 aces and 1 non-ace, or
  • the hand has a non-ace 4-of-a-kind and 1 ace

The above "sub-events" are mutually exclusive and share no overlap. There are 48 possible non-aces to choose from, so the first sub-event consists of 48 possible hands. There are 12 non-ace 4-of-a-kinds and 4 choices of ace for the fifth card, so the second sub-event has a total of 12*4 = 48 possible hands. So A\cap B consists of 96 possible hands, which occurs with probability

\dfrac{96}{\binom{52}5}\approx0.0000369

and so the events A and B are NOT independent.

4 0
3 years ago
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