How is domain of the function f(x)=cosx restricted so that its inverse function exists?
1 answer:
Answer:
see below
Step-by-step explanation:
The largest interval for x ≥ 0 where cos(x) passes the horizontal line test is [0, π]. Hence the domain must be restricted to that interval if the function is to have an inverse that gives values in the range [0, π].
The domain of the function is the same as the range of the inverse function. Restricting the cos(x) function domain to x ∈ [0, π] restricts the range (functional values) of the inverse function to the same interval.
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Answer:
(A)
Length of DE = √17
EF = √18
DF = √17
(B) Slope of DE = 4
EF = 1
DF = 1/4
(C) Isosceles triangle.
Step-by-step explanation:
See attached image.
The Answer is A (The first graph in the photo), I attached the graph to help you see the answer for y-3=-(x+6).
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