How is domain of the function f(x)=cosx restricted so that its inverse function exists?
1 answer:
Answer:
see below
Step-by-step explanation:
The largest interval for x ≥ 0 where cos(x) passes the horizontal line test is [0, π]. Hence the domain must be restricted to that interval if the function is to have an inverse that gives values in the range [0, π].
The domain of the function is the same as the range of the inverse function. Restricting the cos(x) function domain to x ∈ [0, π] restricts the range (functional values) of the inverse function to the same interval.
You might be interested in
Answer:
Lewis's friend walked with him 9/25 miles
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that
Lewis walked 9/10 of a mile
And His friend accompanied him on 2/5 of the way.
This is a simple question of fraction multiplication
The fraction 2/5 has to multiplied with the miles walked by lewis
So
Hence,
Lewis's friend walked with him 9/25 miles