How is domain of the function f(x)=cosx restricted so that its inverse function exists?
1 answer:
Answer:
see below
Step-by-step explanation:
The largest interval for x ≥ 0 where cos(x) passes the horizontal line test is [0, π]. Hence the domain must be restricted to that interval if the function is to have an inverse that gives values in the range [0, π].
The domain of the function is the same as the range of the inverse function. Restricting the cos(x) function domain to x ∈ [0, π] restricts the range (functional values) of the inverse function to the same interval.
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Answer:
The tip of the man shadow moves at the rate of
Step-by-step explanation:
Let's draw a figure that describes the given situation.
Let "x" be the distance between the man and the pole and "y" be distance between the pole and man's shadows tip point.
Here it forms two similar triangles.
Let's find the distance "y" using proportion.
From the figure, we can form a proportion.
Cross multiplying, we get
15(y -x) = 6y
15y - 15x = 6y
15y - 6y = 15x
9y = 15x
y =
We need to find rate of change of the shadow. So we need to differentiate y with respect to the time (t).
----(1)
We are given . Plug in the equation (1), we get
Here the distance between the man and the pole 45 ft does not need because we asked to find the how fast the shadow of the man moves.
