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3 years ago

14

The padlock for your gym locker uses a 3 number sequence to open the lock. If the numbers go from 1 to 28, how many different se

quences are there on the dial without repeating a number? A. 18,900 B. 19,656 C. 37,800 D. 17,550

2 answers:

sergij07 [2.7K]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:37,800

Step-by-step explanation:

pentagon [3]3 years ago

3 0

37,800 is the answer

You might be interested in

Nichior compared the slope of the function graphed to the slope of the linear function that has an x-intercept of 2/3 and a y-in

marusya05 [52]

Answer:

The slope of f(x) is 1.5

Step-by-step explanation:

step 1

Find the slope of the linear function that has an x-intercept of 2/3 and a y-intercept of -1

so

we have the points

(2/3,0) and (0,-1)

The formula to calculate the slope between two points is equal to

$m=\frac{y2-y1}{x2-x1}$

substitute the values

$m=\frac{-1-0}{0-2/3}$

$m=\frac{-1}{-2/3}$

$m=\frac{3}{2}=1.5$

step 2

Find the slope of the function graphed

take the points

(0,-1) and (3,6) approximately

substitute in the formula

$m=\frac{6+1}{3-0}$

$m=\frac{7}{3}=2.33$

step 3

we know that

f(x) represents the function with the smaller slope

The smaller slope is 1.5

therefore

The slope of f(x) is 1.5

4 0

4 years ago

Let X be a Bernoulli rv with pmf as in Example 3.18. a. Compute E(X2 ). b. Show that V(X) 5 p(1 2 p). c. Compute E(X79).

spayn [35]

The Bernoulli distribution is a distribution whose random variable can only take 0 or 1

The value of E(x2) is p
The value of V(x) is p(1 - p)
The value of E(x79) is p

<h3>How to compute E(x2)</h3>

The distribution is given as:

p(0) = 1 - p

p(1) = p

The expected value of x2, E(x2) is calculated as:

$E(x^2) = \sum x^2 * P(x)$

So, we have:

$E(x^2) = 0^2 * (1- p) + 1^2 * p$

Evaluate the exponents

$E(x^2) = 0 * (1- p) + 1 * p$

Multiply

$E(x^2) = 0 +p$

Add

$E(x^2) = p$

Hence, the value of E(x2) is p

<h3>How to compute V(x)</h3>

This is calculated as:

$V(x) = E(x^2) - (E(x))^2$

Start by calculating E(x) using:

$E(x) = \sum x * P(x)$

So, we have:

$E(x) = 0 * (1- p) + 1 * p$

$E(x) = p$

Recall that:

$V(x) = E(x^2) - (E(x))^2$

So, we have:

$V(x) = p - p^2$

Factor out p

$V(x) = p(1 - p)$

Hence, the value of V(x) is p(1 - p)

<h3>How to compute E(x79)</h3>

The expected value of x79, E(x79) is calculated as:

$E(x^{79}) = \sum x^{79} * P(x)$

So, we have:

$E(x^{79}) = 0^{79} * (1- p) + 1^{79} * p$

Evaluate the exponents

$E(x^{79}) = 0 * (1- p) + 1 * p$

Multiply

$E(x^{79}) = 0 + p$

Add

$E(x^{79}) = p$

Hence, the value of E(x79) is p

Read more about probability distribution at:

brainly.com/question/15246027

5 0

3 years ago

Mr de guzman bought 7 1/2 of meat.He used 2 3/4 for afritada,3 1/8 kg for menudo and the rest for pochero.How many kilograms of

nasty-shy [4]

Answer:

hola puto

Step-by-step explanation:

bggyyhh yyesws kihtwrqas bts23e4gyhun

7 0

3 years ago

Wayne bought an engagement ring for Tracy.

ohaa [14]

It would be: 420 + (420 * 17.5%)
= 420 + (420 * 0.175) [ 17.5% = 0.175 ]
= 420 + 73.5
= 493.5

In short, Your Answer would be <span>£493.5

Hope this helps!</span>

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The proof that AMNS AQNS is shown.

FrozenT [24]

Answer:

The answer is "MS and QS".

Step-by-step explanation:

Given ΔMNQ is isosceles with base MQ, and NR and MQ bisect each other at S. we have to prove that ΔMNS ≅ ΔQNS.

As NR and MQ bisect each other at S

⇒ segments MS and SQ are therefore congruent by the definition of bisector i.e MS=SQ

In ΔMNS and ΔQNS

MN=QN (∵ MNQ is isosceles triangle)

∠NMS=∠NQS (∵ MNQ is isosceles triangle)

MS=SQ (Given)

By SAS rule, ΔMNS ≅ ΔQNS.

Hence, segments MS and SQ are therefore congruent by the definition of bisector.

The correct option is MS and QS

3 0

3 years ago