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This is what i found Answer 1
Risk-Adjusted Asset Base
The calculation of the risk-adjusted asset base for a bank is as below-
Risk-adjusted asset = (Cash × 0%) + (municipal security × 20%) + (home mortgages × 50%) + (Commercial loans × 100%)
= (20 × 0%) + (100 × 20%) + (500 × 50%) + (300$ × 100%)
= 0 + 20 + 250 + 300
= $570 million
The outcome shows that the risk-adjusted or weighted asset based for the bank will be $570 million.
Tier1 and Tier 2 Capital:
If the bank has no off-balance sheet activity then minimum required level of Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital will be-
Tier 1 capital = Risk-weighted asset × 4%
= $570 × 4%
= $22.8 million
Tier 2 capital = Maximum of 1.25% of risk-weighted asset
= $570 × 1.25%
= $7.125 million
Total capital = $22.8 + $7.125 => $29.925 million
The outcomes indicate that the minimum required level of Tier1 and Tier
2 capital is $22.8 million and $7.125 million for the bank.
Bank Comply with Capital Requirements:
If the bank has Tier 1 capital of $25 million and Tier 2 capital of $15
million then it will comply with its capital requirements of $29.925
million. It is because in this situation, total capital of bank is $37
million that is higher than the above calculated capital of $29.925
million.
Impact of off-Balance Sheet Activities on Capital Requirements
The addition of off-balance sheet activities might increase the capital
requirement of the bank. It is because an off-balance sheet items is a
financial contract that can create credit loss for the company due to
credit risk. So, in case of adding off-balance sheet activities, a bank
will require more capital to cover credit loss. Along with this, it can
also increase the minimum ratio of capital to risk-weighted assets from
8% and in that situation; the bank will need more capital (Carmichael
& Graham, 2012).
Answer 2
Probability of Repayment and Risk Premium
A).
If the rate on a one-year treasury bill is 6% and in case of loan
default, no payments are expected on financial securities then the
probability of repayment and the risk premium on 1 year AA-rated loan
yielding 9 percent will be-
Probability of Repayment:
The following formula can be useful to determine probability of repayment.
P = (1 + I) / (1 + k)
Where,
I = 6%
k = 9%
Then, ...you have $2.19 left :D
Answer:
The projects which maximize Vanguard's shareholder wealth are Project A; Project B; Project D.
Explanation:
Projects which maximize the shareholder value are projects delivering Expected Returns which are higher than its risk-adjusted weighted average cost of capital (WACC).
As a result, Project A with Expected return of 15% and risk adjusted WACC of 12%; Project B with Expected return of 12% and risk adjusted WACC of 10%; Project D with Expected return of 9% and risk adjusted WACC of 8%; are the projects that maximize the shareholder's value.
On the other hand, Project C with Expected return of 11% and risk adjusted WACC of 12% is harmful to shareholder value.
The accounting entries for Rippen Corporation is recorded as follows:
December 3,
DR Accounts Receivable (Burnen Corp.) $480,000
CR Sales $480,000
DR Cost of Goods Sold $320,000
CR Inventory $320,000
December 8,
DR Sales Return $30,000
CR Accounts Receivable $30,000
DR Inventory $20,000
CR Cost of Goods Sold $20,000
December 12,
DR Cash $441,000
DR Credit Discount $9,000
CR Accounts Receivable $450,000
<h3>What is Journal Entry?</h3>
A journal entry is recorded for the transactions of a company in the relevant period, the entry that is recorded is also known as the double entry. These journal entries are then used to prepare T-Accounts, an then trial balance is made and ultimately income statement and balance sheet are made.
The transaction includes a discount of 2% as credit discount for the payment being made within 10 days.
Learn more about Journal Entries at brainly.com/question/27076717
#SPJ1
Answer:
a. Overstates Year 1 cost of goods sold.
b. Understates Year 1 net income
c. Understates Year 2 cost of goods sold
Explanation:
a. The formula for Calculating the Cost of Goods sold is;
<em>Cost of Goods Sold = Opening inventory + Purchases - Closing inventory.</em>
If the closing inventory is understated, it will reduced the amount being subtracted from Purchases and Opening inventory which would means that Cost of Goods sold will be overstated.
b. The Cost of goods sold is deducted from sales to give Gross profit. If Cost of goods is overstated, it will reduce Gross Profit higher than it should. A lower Gross Profit equates to a lower Net Income.
c. Going by the formula in <em>a;</em>
<em>Cost of Goods Sold = Opening inventory + Purchases - Closing inventory.</em>
In Year 2, the understated Year 1 closing stock will become the understated Year 2 Opening stock. With the opening stock understated, the Cost of goods will be understated as well because Opening stock is meant to increase Cost of goods sold as the formula shows. If it is understated, the amount that it will add will be understated as well.
