1+1 = 84, explanation is quite simple. i should get brainliiest
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Since area of a circle is pi.r^2
We know that diameter is 20
Radius is half of diameter
So it becomes
Pi.(d/2)^2
So pi.(40/4) is the area of this circle.
Or 40pi/4
Answer:I searched it up on go
Step-by-step explanation:and I got 5x-5+ x/2
1600(-400)= f is the y axis and -400 because its taking money from his account
