Answer:
Direct labor efficiency variance= 0
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Direct labor 0.2 hours $ 35 per hour. During June, Heavy Products produced and sold 16,000 containers using 3,200 direct manufacturing labor-hours at an average wage of $ 51.00 per hour.
Direct labor efficiency variance= (Standard Quantity - Aactual Q)*standard rate
Direct labor efficiency variance= (0.2*16,000 - 3,200)*35= 0
Answer:
(a) It will have multiple IRRs
(b) The MIRR calculated is 10.18% . Going by MIRR result , this project will only generate returns that is equal to cost of capital(10%) .If there are other avaible more viable projects, it should be rejected ( Please see attached computation).
Explanation:
(a) The multiple IRRs occurs when cash flows change sign and result in more than one value for the IRR.
Application of IRR to value an investment is only suitable when the project has normal cash flows, i.e a negative initial cash flow (i.e initial investment) followed by a series of positive cash flows.
In this scenario, we have negative cash flow of $6m in year 4 which occured after positive cash flow of $3.5m per year from year 1 to 3. This typically make IRR unreliable. To overcome this limitation , we can use Modified Internal Rate of Return (MIRR)
(b) Please see attached for more details.
Answer:
C. Internal Models use sensory information for motor control but do not to consider physiological or biomechanical features of the body.
Answer: II and III
Explanation:
From the question, we are informed that a customer has a fully paid options position and is long marginable stock and that subsequently he receives a margin call on his long stock position.
The statements that are true are that the customer cannot borrow against the long options contracts to satisfy the margin call and the long option contracts have a loan value of 0%.
Therefore, option C is the right answer.