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Tresset [83]
3 years ago
7

Casey Electronics has a piece of machinery that costs $300,000 and is expected to have a useful life of 6 years or 40,000 hours.

Residual value is expected to be $50,000.
Using the units-of-production method, what is depreciation expense for the first year assuming it was used 6,000 hours?

A. I DON'T KNOW YET
B. $41,667
C. $81,000
D. $70,000
Business
1 answer:
kozerog [31]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

None of the given options.

Depreciation expense for year 1 would be $37,500.

Explanation:

Cost = $400,000

Residual value = $50,000  

Expected hours = 40,000

Working hours (year 1) = 6,000 hours  

Now,  

Depreciation per hour = \frac{Cost-Residual Value}{Expected hours}  

Depreciation per hour = \frac{300,000 - 50,000}{40,000}  

Depreciation per hour = \frac{250,000}{40,000}  

Depreciation per hour = $6.25

Depreciation expense (year 1) = Depreciation per hour × Working hours (year 1)

Depreciation expense (year 1) = $6.25 × 6,000

Depreciation expense (year 1) = $37,500

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A vacant lot acquired for $115,000 is sold for $298,000 in cash. What is the effect of the sale on the total amount of the
Artemon [7]

Answer:

+$183,000

$0

+$183,000

Explanation:

Total assets increased by ($298,000 - $115,000) $183,000.

Total liabilities has no change

Total shareholder equity increased by ($298,000 - $115,000) $183,000.

4 0
3 years ago
Consider a firm with a 2013 net income of $20 million, revenue of $60 million, and cost of goods sold of $25 million. If the bal
Nostrana [21]

Answer:

Weeks of supply = 4.16 weeks

Explanation:

given data

net income = $20 million

revenue = $60 million

cost of goods sold = $25 million

inventory = $2 million

property, plant, and equipment = $500,000

to find out

how many weeks of supply does the firm hold

solution

we know here that Weeks of supply will be express as

Weeks of supply = \frac{average inventory}{cost of goods sold} × 52 weeks          ....................................1

so put here value we get weeks of supply

Weeks of supply =  \frac{2}{25} × 52 weeks

Weeks of supply = 4.16 weeks

3 0
3 years ago
The primary difference between the capital adequacy ratio (car) and the leverage ratio (lr) is?
Ainat [17]

The capital adequacy ratio (CAR) calculates a bank's available capital as a proportion of its risk-weighted credit exposures. The capital adequacy ratio, is commonly known as the capital-to-risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR). A leverage ratio is any of a number of financial metrics that examine the amount of capital that is borrowed (loans).

Learn more about capital adequacy Ratio (CAR ) And leverage Ratio (LR) here:

brainly.com/question/16993640

#SPJ4

5 0
2 years ago
Preparing a Cost of Goods Sold Budget
Art [367]

Answer:

Direct Materials      $    14*20,000            = $ 28000

Direct Labor            $  14*1.9* 20,000       = $ 532,000

Variable Overhead  $ 14*1.9*1.2*20,000  = $ 638400

Fixed Overhead $ 14*1.9*1.8*20,000  =  $957600

Total Manufacturing Cost $                = 2156000

Less: Ending Inventory $   107.8*730 = 78649

Cost of Goods Sold                      $2077306

Working:

Total Manufacturing Cost $  per unit      = 2156000/ 20,000= 107.8 $

Ending Inventory $   107.8*730 = 78649

4 0
3 years ago
Day 2: Whoever says the craziest comment you can have (brainlyest) and you get free points :) good luck
MissTica

Answer:

If the movie 'Finding Nemo' were scientifically accurate, Nemo's dad would have become female after Nemo's mom died. Then he would have mated with his son.

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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