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Fofino [41]
3 years ago
13

Jim Company bought a machine for $36,000 with an estimated life of 5 years. The residual value of the machine is $6,000. This ma

chine is expected to produce 120,000 units. In year 1, it produced 19,000 units, and in year 2, 38,000 units. Assuming the units-of-production method, calculate the first 2 years’ depreciation.
Business
1 answer:
lara31 [8.8K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Year 1 $4,750

Year 2 $9,500

Explanation:

Calculation for the first 2 years' depreciation

Since we were told that in year 1 it produced 19,000 units which means that the depreciation will be calculated as :

Year 1 Depreciation =19,000 units÷4 years

Year 1 Depreciation=$4,750

Calculation for Year 2 Depreciation

Since we were told that in year 2, 38,000 units was produce which means that the Depreciation will be calculated as :

Year 2 Depreciation =19,000 units÷2 years

Year 2 Depreciation =$9,500

Therefore Year 1 depreciation will be $4,750 while Year 2 depreciation will be $9,500.

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Abramov Inc. uses a job-order costing system in which any underapplied or overapplied overhead is closed to cost of goods sold a
brilliants [131]

Answer:

Option c is correct

$245,680

Explanation:

The total manufacturing cost = $737,040.

Units produced = 22,200

Cost per unit before adjustment for absorbed overhead=

=$737,040./22,200 units

=$33.2 per unit

Cost of goods sold before adjustment for overheads

= (cost per unit × units sold)

= $33.2 × 7,400

= $245,680

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A linear production possibilities curve indicates which of the following?
lilavasa [31]

Answer:

I think ur answers are A, B, and C.

Explanation:

Hope this helps!

6 0
2 years ago
To have an effective marketing exchange process, you must make sure it involves a customer, a provider, a product, and a:
k0ka [10]
1) lawyer


I hope this is right

5 0
3 years ago
Cairns owns 80 percent of the voting stock of Hamilton, Inc. The parent’s interest was acquired several years ago on the date th
tensa zangetsu [6.8K]

Answer:

hello your question has a missing journal entry table attached below is the entry journal table completely filled

Explanation:

Amount of bonds acquired = 40% of original bond

i) Bonds payable = 40% * 1,300,000

                           = $520000

purchase price of bonds = $520000 * 96% ( FACE VALUE )

                                         = $499200

hence the annual amortization

(bonds payable - purchase price of bonds ) / 10 years - 2 years

(520000 - 499200 ) / 8  = $20800/8 = $2600

ii) premium on bonds payable

$20800 - $2600 = $18200

cash amount = $520000 * 8% = $41600

intra entity expense and income table is attached below

from the table

iii) intra-entity interest expense = $39000 and the

iv) intra-entity interest income = $44200

v) investment in bonds

purchase price of bonds + annual amortization

= $499200 + $2600 = $501800

the book value on bonds as at 1st January 2011

=$1300000 * 105% = $1365000

Premium on bonds as at January 1st 2011

= $1365000 - $1300000 = $65000

amortization of premium as at January 1st 2011

=( ($65000) / 10 years ) * 2 years

= $13000

hence the controlling interest in bonds payable = $540800

vi) gains on retirement bonds

=  $540800 - $499200 = $41600

attached below is the journal entry on 31st December 2013

5 0
3 years ago
Question 7
elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]

Today's share price for CCN is $16.67

Today's share price for CCN can be determined using the Gordon constant dividend growth model

The Gordon growth model is used to determine the value of the share of a firm using the value of its dividend with the assumption that the firm grows at a constant rate.

The formula of the Gordon constant dividend growth model :  

price = d1 / (r - g)

d1 = next dividend to be paid = $0.50

r = cost of equity = 12%

g = growth rate = 9%

0.50 / (12% - 9%)

0.50 / 3%

0.50 / 0.03

= $16.67

A similar question was answered here: brainly.com/question/15023105?referrer=searchResults

6 0
2 years ago
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