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krek1111 [17]
2 years ago
12

Please help with this

Mathematics
1 answer:
sesenic [268]2 years ago
5 0
What do you need help with ?

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Find the value of x <br> a. 2<br> b. 4<br> c. 6<br> d. 8
tiny-mole [99]

Answer:

B, 4

Step-by-step explanation:

To do this you can use the Pathagaryos thereom a^2+b^2=c^2

So we have (x-2)^2+x^2=20

We can expand (x-2)^2 and get

x^2-4x+4

so we have x^2 -4x +4 + x^2=20

We can combine like terms and subtract 20 from both sides to get

2x^2-4x-16=0

We can factor this and get (2x+4)(x-4)

which means that x=4 and -2

Obviously the length can't be a negative and so we reject x= -2 and we get x=4

We can double check it and see that

(4-2)^2+4^2=20

and it does

8 0
3 years ago
Is the function f(x) = (- 7) ^ x an exponential function ? If so , identify the base . If not , why not ?
Degger [83]

Answer:

Yeah, the base is -7

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
If four students are selected at random, find the probability that all four rate their study habits as very good
maxonik [38]
Would depend on how many other students are in the class/school.
8 0
2 years ago
Math question, note: there are two answers!!
stiks02 [169]

The answer is A and B.  I showed my work below.  I hope it makes sense.  Let me know if you have any questions.

5 0
3 years ago
A person runs 1/8 mile in 1/64 hour.<br> The person's speed is (BLANK) miles per hour.
snow_tiger [21]

Answer: The person's speed is 8 miles per hour.

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve we want to convert the \frac{1}{8} and \frac{1}{64} proportionally for the number of miles per hour. We know that multiplying a fraction by its reciprocal will equal 1. So let's do that for the value of the hour.

\frac{1}{64}×\frac{64}{1} =\frac{64}{64} =1

Since we multiplied that to the number of hours we must also do that for the number of miles.

\frac{1}{8}×\frac{64}{1} =\frac{64}{8} =8

7 0
2 years ago
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