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3 years ago

6

How does scale factor change the area?

1 answer:

morpeh [17]3 years ago

5 0

Answer: in summary, a scale factor is simply a number that multiplies the dimensions of a shape. ... If the scale factor is three, then the perimeter of the new object will be three times the original perimeter. The area of a scaled object will be equal to the scale factor squared.

Step-by-step explanation:

For example, if you had a triangle with a base measuring 6 units, and a height measuring 3 units, the area would be 9 square units. If we scale it by 1/3, the triangle's base is 2 units, the height is 1 unit, and the area is 1 square unit. The dimensions were scaled by 1/3, but the area was scaled by 1/9 (1/3 * 1/3).

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Show all work to multiply (3+ /(-16))(6-/(-64))

Reil [10]

Answer:

=50

Step-by-step explanation:

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What are the solutions to the equation?

nekit [7.7K]

The correct answer is -5 and 3

I took the test and this was the correct answer

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Exactly 1 1/3 yard of ribbon is needed to make a bow. Which of the following lengths of ribbon could be used to make a bow with

svp [43]

Answer:

1 and 2/5 yards wastes only 1/15 a yard

Step-by-step explanation:

1 and 1/6 yards would make a waste of 1 and 1/6 yards since you can't make a ribbon out of it. (incorrect)

1 and 2/10 yards would make a waste of 1 and 1/5 yards since you can't make a ribbon out of it. (incorrect)

1 and 2/5 yards

$1\frac{2}{5} -1\frac{1}{3} =\\\\1\frac{6}{15} -1\frac{5}{15} =\\\\\frac{1}{15}$

Wastes 1/15 a yard.

1 and 1/2 yards

$1\frac{1}{2} -1\frac{1}{3} =\\\\1\frac{3}{6} -1\frac{2}{6} =\\\\\frac{1}{6}$

It wastes 1/6 a yard.

2 yards

$2-1\frac{1}{3} =\frac{2}{3}$

It wastes 4/6 a yard.

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3 years ago

Find the degree of the monomial.<br> 3a4b3

steposvetlana [31]

Answer:

degree of the monomial is the sum of the exponents of all included variables

Step-by-step explanation:

please mark me as brainlist please

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2 years ago

tekilochka [14]

Answer:

$\frac{1}{20}$

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we need to look at the # of chips. There are a total of 25, 6 of which are blue.

This means that the chance of getting the first blue chip would be $\frac{6}{25}$

As there is no replacement, the total number of chips is 24 and there are only 5 blue left. This gives us the chance of $\frac{5}{24}$

Now all we need to do is mulitply these two and then simplify

$\frac{6}{25} *\frac{5}{24} =\frac{30}{600} =\frac{1}{20}$

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