Your company emphasizes the important of conserving (not wasting)

Cash receipts and cash disbursement budgets for a government: Should be prepared monthly or as needed to enhance cash management

nlexa [21]

Answer:

Should be prepared monthly or as needed to enhance cash management, investment management, and short-term debt management.

Explanation:

The government budget with respect to the cash receipts and cash disbursement should be prepared on the monthly basis or it should be prepared as per the requirement so that the managing of the cash could be enhanced also along with it the managing of the investing and managing of the short term debt could also be enhances

Therefore the first option is correct

7 0

2 years ago

A division of IBM works out of 360 locations in 64 countries, tracking more than 1.5 million assets for both IBM and its clients

Drupady [299]

Answer:

supply chain management.

Explanation:

based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the individuals who monitor these transactions are engaged in supply chain management. This role focuses on the movement of the company's goods and services including the steps that are taken from gathering materials to final production of the good or service that is being provided.

6 0

3 years ago

etaline Corp. uses the weighted average method for inventory costs and had the following information available for the year. Cal

luda_lava [24]

Answer:

Equivalent units of production= 3,520

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Ending inventory of Work in Process (80% complete) 400 units

Total units started during the year 3,200 units

<u>To calculate the equivalent units using the weighted-average method, we need to use the following formula:</u>

<u></u>

Units completed in the period + Equivalent units in ending inventory WIP (units*%completion) = Equivalent units of production

Equivalent units of production= 3,200 + (400*0.8)

Equivalent units of production= 3,520

8 0

2 years ago

Princess Cruise Company (PCC) purchased a ship from Mitsubishi Heavy Industry. PCC owes Mitsubishi Heavy Industry 500 million ye

Illusion [34]

Answer:

Explanation:

a)

In the case of forwarding hedge:

The future dollar cost will be = FX receiveable ÷ Foward exchange rate

= 500 million yen ÷ 110 yen/dollar

= $4.55 million

For money market hedge:

Present value of yen payable = $500 \ yen \div (1+ \dfrac{5}{100})$

$= \dfrac{500 \ yen }{1.06}$

= 476.20 million yen

PCC would convert dollars to yens at the spot market rate and borrow yen such that it would get 500 million yen at maturity(i.e after one year) for Mitsubishi to receive it.

Dollars needed to get these yen = 476.30 yen ÷ 124 yen/dollar

= $3.84 million

Future Value of these dollars (for comparison with the foward market hedge) = $3.84 × (1 + 0.08)

= $4.15 million

Hence, the money market hedge is better as the dollar cost is lower than the forward market hedge to meet the obligation.

b)

On the maturity date, the spot rate is 110 yen/dollar

Ad the strike price = 0.0081 /dollar

It is better for the company to go for the strike price due to the fact that it has a lower rate than the spot rate.

Now;

The premium amount = 500000000 yen × 0.014 dollar / yen

= 70000 dollars

However; the Future dollar-cost payable = 500000000 yen × 0.0081 dollar /yen

= 4050000 dollars

By applying option hedge, the total dollar cost required to meet the obligation = (4050000 + 70000) dollars

= 4120000 dollars

c)

The dollar cost needed from the option hedge required to matching the forward hedge is determined by subtracting it from the premium amount:

Thus;

for option hedge, dollar cost needed = (4550000 - 70000) dollars

= 4480000 dollars

The required future spot rate = 500000000/4480000

= 111.61 yen/dollar

As a result, at the future spot rate of 111.61 yen/dollar, PCC will be unconcerned about and indifferent about the option or forward hedge because the future dollar cost of meeting the obligation will be the same.

3 0

2 years ago

Debt management ratios measure the extent to which a firm uses financial leverage and the degree of safety afforded to . They in

Ket [755]

Answer:

The 1st ratio examines debt by observing at the company's balance sheet, whereas the other two ratios examine debt by observing at the company's income statement. Thus, debt-to-total-assets ratio processes the %age of assets delivered by debt in order to fund total assets. The computed equation will be: (Total long term debt + Total short term debt) / Total assets). The high debt ratios that overdo the business average might create it expensive for a company to borrow the extra funds without initial raising for more equity. The period’s interest received ratio processes the degree to which the income can fall before the company is incapable to meet its yearly interest expense expenditures. However, the computed equation is EBIT / total interest payable: EBIT is used as the numerator as it is funded with pretax dollars. The company’s capability to pay will not be affected by the taxes. The EBITDA analysis ratio is EBITDA / total interest: This proportion is more comprehensive than the TIE proportion because it identifies that depreciation and payback are not expenses, so these aggregates are accessible to service debt, and lease expenses and principal refunds are fixed expenses.

8 0

3 years ago