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DedPeter [7]
3 years ago
7

The renewal probability is assumed to be 60% for a particular lease with 12 months vacant if the lease is not renewed. The expec

ted vacancy at the end of the lease is:
(A)​4.8 months
(B)​7.2 months
(C)​9.0 months
(D)​12.0 months
Business
1 answer:
RUDIKE [14]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

(A) ​4.8 months

Explanation:

After the expiration of a lease, a maximum of one third allowance is usually given.

Therefore, The expected vacancy at the end of this lease can be calculated as follows:

The expected vacancy = 60% × 12 × (2 ÷ 3) = 4.8 months

Therefore, the expected vacancy at the end of the lease is 4.8 months.

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In a gift of a parcel of real estate, one of the two owners was given an undivided 60 percent interest and the other received an
hram777 [196]

Answer:

D) Tenants in common

Explanation:

To be tenants in common you must be part of a tenancy in common agreement. A tenancy in common agreement is a situation in which 2 or more people hold interest in a property and each owner has the right to leave their share of the property to a beneficiary upon their death.

This doesn’t mean you own separate parts, but that you have separate interest in the whole property.

Tenants in common can have different ownership interests, e.g. Smith may own 60% of a property and Michael may own 40%.

4 0
3 years ago
The decision situations wherein the decision-maker chooses to consider several possible outcomes and the probabilities of their
RUDIKE [14]

Answer: The correct answer is "a. decisions under risk.".

Explanation: The decision situations wherein the decision-maker chooses to consider several possible outcomes and the probabilities of their occurrence can be stated are called <u>decisions under risk.</u>

Decision-making under risk is one of the three possible decision-making scenarios based on the available information, this scenario presents an intermediate situation between decision-making under certainty or under uncertainty: each alternative, strategy or course of action has several possible consequences, but the person in charge of making the decision knows the probability of each of them.

5 0
4 years ago
You are a U.S.-based treasurer with $1,000,000 to invest. The dollar-euro exchange rate is quoted as $1.60 = €1.00 and the dolla
kotykmax [81]

Answer: An astute trader can make $ 41,666.66.

Explanation: You must first change

$ 1,000,000 per pounds, which would leave a total of £ 500,000. ($ 1,000,000 / 2.00 = £ 500,000;).

Secondly spend £ 500,000 to euros, obtaining € 600,000 (£ 500,000 x 1.20 = € 600,000;).

Thirdly, with euros, buying dollars again, obtaining $ 960,000 (€ 600,000 x 1.60 = $ 960,000), that is, an arbitrage loss of -40,000 in relation to the initial investment.

Finally you must return in the opposite direction:

$ 1,000,000 / 1.6 (€) / 1.2 (£) * 2 - $ 1,000,000 = $ 41,666.66 that is, an arbitrage profit.

4 0
4 years ago
8) walter co. and sandburg industries report the following information at december 31: walter sandburg accounts receivable $41,0
True [87]

Walter Co. is a manufacturer because it uses raw materials, and has a stock of merchandise inventory, work-in-progress inventory, and finished goods inventory. The current assets of Walter Co. will be:

Current Assets:

Cash                                                          6,000

Inventories

Raw materials inventory       21,000

Work in progress inventory  40,000

Finished goods inventory      25,000

Merchandise inventory           48,000

Total inventory                                      1,34,000

Other assets

Accounts receivable                               41,000

Prepaid expenses                                     1,000

Current assets                                                               2,22,000

A manufacturing company is a company that takes in raw materials processes the raw materials and then sells the finished goods manufactured in the market. So the current assets section of the balance sheet of Walter Co. is given which will be written on the right side of the balance sheet.

Learn more about manufacturing companies here:

brainly.com/question/14942185

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3 0
2 years ago
What happens to the price of a three-year annual coupon paying bond with an 8% coupon when interest rates change from 8% to 6.85
ruslelena [56]

Face Value of bond = $1000

Annual Coupon Payment = $1000*8%

= $80

No of years to maturity(n) = 3 years

When the Market Interest rate was 8%, the Price of the bond will be the same as the Par value which is $1000 because when the Coupon rate and Market Interest rate are the same the Bond sells at par Value.

So, At an 8% Interest rate price is $1000

- Interest rate(YTM) changed to 8.86%

Calculating the Price of Bond:-

Price = \frac{CouponPayment}{(1+YTM)^{1}}+\frac{CouponPayment}{(1+YTM)^{2}}+...+\frac{CouponPayment}{(1+YTM)^{n}}+\frac{FaceValue}{(1+YTM)^{n}}

Price = \frac{80}{(1+0.0886)^{1}}+\frac{80}{(1+0.0886)^{2}}+\frac{80}{(1+0.0886)^{3}}+\frac{1000}{(1+0.0886)^{3}}

Price =$203.008 + $775.166

Price = $978.17

So, when the Interest rate changed to 8.86% the price falls to $978.17

Change in Price due to increase in Interest rate = $978.17 - $1000

= -$21.83

Hence, the price decreased by $21.83

Learn more about interest here

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7 0
2 years ago
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