Answer:
Future value (FV) = $57,908
Present value (PV) = $8,860
Number of years (n) = 18 years
Interest rate = ?
FV = PV(1 + r)n
$57,908 = $8,860(1 + r)18
$57,908 = $8,860(1 + r)18
<u>$57,908</u> = (1 + r)18
$8,860
6.535891648 = (1 + r)18
18√6.535891648 = 1 + r
1.10993 - 1 = r
r = 0.10992 = 10.99%
Explanation:
In this case, we will apply the future value of a lump sum (single investment) formula. The present value, future value and number of years are given with the exception of interest rate. Thus, interest rate is made the subject of the formula.
Instrumentality.
Since Rick believes that working hard will result in better incentives and his attitude towards these incentives is not known, we can say that in the context of expectancy theory of motivation, that this scenario best reflects the factor of <u>instrumentality</u>.
Vroom's expectancy theory of motivation attempts to explain that people choose to perform certain actions over other in a manner that aims to maximize pleasure and reduce pain to lowest possible extent.
There are three factors that affect motivation : expectancy, instrumentality and valence.
Expectancy : refers to the belief of working harder with the expectation of attaining the goals set within an organization.
Instrumentality : refers to the belief that one will be rewarded if certain goals are met. These rewards may take the form of increased wages, recognition, increased incentives etc.
Valence: refers to the value attached by the worker to the reward that has been attained.
Answer:
Cost of equity = 11.7%
Explanation:
<em>The capital asset pricing model is a risk-based model. Here, the return on equity is dependent on the level of reaction of the the equity to changes in the return on a market portfolio. These changes are captured as systematic risk. The magnitude by which a stock is affected by systematic risk is measured by beta.</em>
Under CAPM, Ke= Rf + β(Rm-Rf)
Rf-risk-free rate,-4%, β= Beta-1.10, (Rm-Rf) = 7% ,Ke = cost of equity
Using this model,
Ke=4% + 1.10×7%
= 11.7 %
Cost of equity = 11.7%
Answer:
$30,000 increase
Explanation:
Piper Corp is operating at 70% capacity, and so we can produce the unit in-house at no increase to fixed cost we are already incurring. So we assume fixed cost for the extra production is zero
Without fixed cost the unit can be produced at $26, so cost of producing the units needed= 26*15,000= $390,000
To buy the product we need $24 per unit, so the cost of buying the needed units is= 24* 15,000= $360,000
The differential cost of making the part rather than purchasing it = Cost of inhouse production- Cost of Buying= 390,000- 360,000= $30,000
