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PolarNik [594]
3 years ago
10

Explain in detail two engagments. ASAP

Business
1 answer:
dexar [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

easy a

Explanation:

easy a

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PLEASE HELP ME ILL MAKE YOU BRAINLIEST
blagie [28]

Answer:

C

Explanation:

Hope this helps!

7 0
3 years ago
3.1. Explain which of the following approaches to strategy formulation is more likely to generate economic profits: (a) evaluati
Radda [10]

Answer:

Option B.

Explanation:

Employing internal based resources gives a better competitive edge to an organisation as those resources are already in place. This eliminates extra cost of getting new funding or resources as in option A.

5 0
4 years ago
Abbott Company uses the allowance method of accounting for uncollectible accounts. Abbott estimates that 4% of credit sales will
OverLord2011 [107]

Answer:

$3760

Explanation:

Calculation to determine the December 31 balance in Bad Debt Expense

Using this formula

Bad debt expense = Credit sales × Uncollectible percentage

Let plug in the formula

Bad debt expense= $94,000 × 4%

Bad debt expense= $94,000 × 0.04

Bad debt expense= $3760

Therefore the December 31 balance in Bad Debt Expense will be $3760

8 0
3 years ago
You are selling a product on commission, at the rate of $1,000 per sale. To date, you have spent $800 promoting a particular pro
Vesnalui [34]

Answer:

Either you quit trying and lose $800 sunk, or you spend $800 for $1,600 total in which the Net from the sale of $1,000 would results in a loss of $600. That means it will be of good to lose $600 than $800.

Explanation:

Since $800 has been spent which means Spending up to an additional $1,000 is still reasonable, but a condition in which you know that the deal will definitely go through.

Secondly since you have already sunk $800, and you know that spending an additional $800 would guarantee it, you can do one among this two options which are either you stop trying and lose the $800 sunk, or you the spend $800 for $1,600($1,000+$600) total in which the Net from the sale of $1,000 would results in a loss of $600($1,000-$800=200,$800-$200=$600). That means it will be of good to lose $600 than $800.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A firm has a profit margin of 6% and an equity multiplier of 1.5. Its sales are $230 million, and it has total assets of $115 mi
Ket [755]

Answer:

18%

Explanation:

In this question, we use the DuPont Analysis which is shown below:

ROE = Profit margin × Total assets turnover × Equity multiplier

ROE = 6% × 2 × 1.5

        = 18%

The total assets turnover is shown below:

= Sales ÷ total assets

= $230 million ÷ $115 million

= 2

Simply we apply the ROE formula in which the profit margin is multiplied with the total assets turnover and the equity multiplier

7 0
3 years ago
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