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bearhunter [10]
3 years ago
13

Which of the following would cause a contra-asset to be credited and an expense debited?

Business
2 answers:
docker41 [41]3 years ago
3 0
B. Recording the building depreciation. is the correct answer.
kondor19780726 [428]3 years ago
3 0
Letter B. Recording the building depreciation, is the correct answer.
You might be interested in
Drag the labels to complete each sentence that discusses the development of viral-induced cancer.
Digiron [165]

Answer:

1. regulatory

2. proto-oncogenes and apoptosis

3. presence

4. inactive

5. tumor-suppressor and p53

Explanation:

Gene code for a protein helps it to grow, two of important gene is proto-oncogenes which gives rise to oncogenes. It interferes with different proteins and undergoes normal cell regulation. P53 is a tumor suppressor protein which is found in nucleus of all cells. This protein undergoes the gene mutation.

6 0
3 years ago
You own a portfolio equally invested in a risk-free asset and two stocks (If one of the stocks has a beta of 0.66 and the total
Alja [10]

Answer:

The beta of the other stock or stock B is 2.34

Explanation:

The beta of the portfolio is the weighted average of the individual stock betas that form up the portfolio. To calculate the beta for the portfolio, we use the following formula,

Portfolio beta = wA * Beta of A + wB * Beta of B + ... + wN * Beta of N

Where,

  • w represents the weight of each stock in the portfolio

As the portfolio is equally as risky as the market, the portfolio beta is assumed to be the same as that of the market and the beta is 1.

The beta is the measure of systematic risk and a risk free asset does not have risk and has a beta of 0.

To calculate the Beta of stock B in the portfolio, we simply put the available values in the formula for the portfolio beta,

1 = 1/3 * 0 + 1/3 * 0.66 + 1/3 * Beta of B

1 = 0 + 0.22 + 1/3 * Beta of B

1 - 0.22 = 1/3 * Beta of B

0.78 * 3 = 1 * Beta of B

2.34 = Beta of B

Thus, the beta of the other stock or stock B is 2.34

4 0
4 years ago
Explain why the marginal rate of technical substitution is likely to diminish as more and more labor is substituted for capital.
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer: This is because the marginal rate of technical substitution is the ratio of the marginal product of labour to that of capital and for the output to be constant opportunity cost comes in, one input has to be reduced to increase the other input.

Explanation:

The marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS) shows the amount by which the quantity of an input can be lowered when an extra unit of another input is​ utilized on order for the output to remain constant.

The marginal rate of technical substitution is likely to reduce as more capital is substituted for labor because the marginal rate of technical substitution is the ratio of the marginal product of labour to that of capital and for the output to be constant opportunity cost comes in, one input has to be reduced to increase the other input.

8 0
4 years ago
GreenLawn Co. provides landscaping services to clients. On May 1, a customer paid GreenLawn $60,000 for 6-months services in adv
Dvinal [7]

Answer:

Credit to Unearned Revenue for $60,000.

Explanation:

Journal Entry of $60,000 for 6-months services in advance ia as follow:

                                        Dr.                     Cr.

Cash                           $60,000

Unearned Revenue                             $60,000

Services are not performed by GreenLawn Co. so the amount received will be considered as a liability and It will be named as unearned revenue. Cash received will be debited to the cash account. After the performance of service  of each month the revenue will be recognized and transferred from unearned revenue account to service revenue account.

8 0
4 years ago
Each of the following situations is independent. Work out your own solution to each situation, and then check it against the sol
saw5 [17]

Morgan will get $1600 with the process of simple interest.

<h3>what is simple interest?</h3>

Simple interest is calculated based on a loan's principal or the initial deposit into a savings account. Simple interest doesn't compound, therefore a creditor will only charge interest on the principal sum, and a borrower will never be required to pay further interest on the interest that has already accrued.

Rate of interest = 12%

principal = $1000

Time = 5 years

Simple interest

=\frac{1000 \times 5 \times 12}{100}\\=600

Now amount = 1000+600 = 1600.

Therefore, Morgan will get $1600.

To learn more about simple interest from the given link

brainly.com/question/25793394

#SPJ4

8 0
2 years ago
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