Answer:
7
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
C.
Step-by-step explanation:
As the base of this function is 10, P must be 10 times as great as M in order for the logarithm to be 1 greater.
This means that C. is the answer
B. (4,2)
G is 1 right and 1 up and point B is 1 right and 1 down
44÷60×100=73%.33 that's your answer
I would say that the answer is A. Parallel because, the points are each the same distance away (horizontally) going by the little faded dots in the background