The answer to this problem situation would be D.
To solve this problem you would simply divide 1 by 6 (the line between the 1 and 6 in the fraction is a division sign with the denominator always out and the numerator in)
1) 1÷6= 0.1666666666667
Now you traditionally and usually would round up but if the direction says otherwise then round down.
2) 0.17
And 0.17 would be your final answer!
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Short answer: NO.
28 cups is exactly equal to 14 pints. (There are 2 cups per pint.)
