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KiRa [710]
3 years ago
5

For a binomial experiment, is it possible for the probability of success to change from one trial to the next? I figure that the

answer would be no, that as long as the trials are independent (a feature of a binomial experiment, right?), then it would not be possible for the probability of success to change, Am i understanding it correctly?
Mathematics
2 answers:
Allushta [10]3 years ago
8 0
Yes you are understanding correctly
Irina18 [472]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Yup you get it! (Probability doesn't change, it is constant for all trials)

Step-by-step explanation:

In binomial experiments, you have two conditions, a success and failure is how they often put it. In this experiment, the probability of success has to be the same for each trial to constitute it as a binomial experiment.

Basically there's 4 rule you need to satisfy for an experiment to be considered binomial:

1) Has to have fixed number of trials. Eg, n=1,2,3.....x x= finite number (we cannot have infinte trials)

2) Each trial is independent of one another. (One trial doesn't influence another trials probability/outcome)

3) Only two outcomes (very important) because as name suggests bi- (bi usually means two)

4) Probability of each outcome/condition is constant from one trial to another

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Here are the ingredients needed to make 8 pancakes.
hram777 [196]

Answer:

A. 1,000 ml milk B. 3,500 g flour

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide: 250 divided by 8. You get 31.25.

Multiply: 31.25 times 32. You get 1,000

Divide: 140 divide by 8. You get 17.5

Multiply: 17.5 times 20. You get 3,500

Hope I helped!! :) Sorry if it's wrong! :(

3 0
3 years ago
What is the value of k in the equation?
RSB [31]

Answer:

k=67/1360

Step-by-step explanation: Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.

201=4080k

Step 2: Flip the equation.

4080k=201

Step 3: Divide both sides by 4080.

4080k

4080

=

201

4080

k=

67

1360

Answer:

k=

67

1360

3 0
3 years ago
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-3 +<br> (- 1/6) what is ansewe help asap
vichka [17]

Answer:

-3.16666666667

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
4) 3 + 2x - 8x = -15
Bond [772]

Answer:

=3

Step-by-step explanation:

Combine like terms 3-6x=-15

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8 0
3 years ago
The time to fly between New York City and Chicago is uniformly distributed with a minimum of 120 minutes and a maximum of 150 mi
rewona [7]

Answer:

a. 8.66 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the flight times are uniformly distributed, the standard deviation can be calculated as follows:

\sigma = \frac{b-a}{\sqrt{12}}

Where '<em>b' </em>is the maximum flight time (150 minutes) and '<em>a' </em>is the minimum flight time (120 minutes):

\sigma = \frac{150-120}{\sqrt{12}}\\\sigma = 8.66\ minutes

The distribution's standard deviation is 8.66 minutes.

4 0
3 years ago
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