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KiRa [710]
3 years ago
5

For a binomial experiment, is it possible for the probability of success to change from one trial to the next? I figure that the

answer would be no, that as long as the trials are independent (a feature of a binomial experiment, right?), then it would not be possible for the probability of success to change, Am i understanding it correctly?
Mathematics
2 answers:
Allushta [10]3 years ago
8 0
Yes you are understanding correctly
Irina18 [472]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Yup you get it! (Probability doesn't change, it is constant for all trials)

Step-by-step explanation:

In binomial experiments, you have two conditions, a success and failure is how they often put it. In this experiment, the probability of success has to be the same for each trial to constitute it as a binomial experiment.

Basically there's 4 rule you need to satisfy for an experiment to be considered binomial:

1) Has to have fixed number of trials. Eg, n=1,2,3.....x x= finite number (we cannot have infinte trials)

2) Each trial is independent of one another. (One trial doesn't influence another trials probability/outcome)

3) Only two outcomes (very important) because as name suggests bi- (bi usually means two)

4) Probability of each outcome/condition is constant from one trial to another

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3 years ago
The base of a triangle is 8 1 3 meters and the height of the triangle is the fourth root of 16 meters meters. What is the area o
just olya [345]

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we know that

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Help
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