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3 years ago

I’m desperate please someone

Mathematics

1 answer:

GaryK [48]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:11/43

Step-by-step explanation:

This is because if you add all of the patients up you will get a sum of 43. Since there is a total of 11 Patients that are 19-60, and also getting a regular cleaning the answer should be 11/43 people.

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dana is flying a kite whose string is 65 meters long and makes a 70 degree angle with the ground. How far is the kite above the

SSSSS [86.1K]

Here you would want to use the sine function, since it’s making a triangle with the ground, and length of the string, the height to the kite. This can be found by 65sin(70°) which is ≈ 61.08 meters

3 0

3 years ago

Solve this: -4a = -52

Greeley [361]

Answer:

Hello! answer: 13

Step-by-step explanation:

-4 × 13 = 52 therefore a = 13 HOPE THAT HELPS!

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Travelers who fail to cancel their hotel reservations when they have no intention of showing up are commonly referred to as no-s

notsponge [240]

Answer:

a) 0.0523 = 5.23% probability that at least two of the four selected will turn to be no-shows.

b) 0 is the most likely value for X.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each traveler who made a reservation, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they show up, or they do not. The probability of a traveler showing up is independent of other travelers. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

No-show rate of 10%.

This means that $p = 0.1$

Four travelers who have made hotel reservations in this study.

This means that $n = 4$

a) What is the probability that at least two of the four selected will turn to be no-shows?

This is $P(X \geq 2) = P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4)$

In which

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 2) = C_{4,2}.(0.1)^{2}.(0.9)^{2} = 0.0486$

$P(X = 3) = C_{4,3}.(0.1)^{3}.(0.9)^{1} = 0.0036$

$P(X = 4) = C_{4,4}.(0.1)^{4}.(0.9)^{0} = 0.0001$

$P(X \geq 2) = P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) = 0.0486 + 0.0036 + 0.0001 = 0.0523$

0.0523 = 5.23% probability that at least two of the four selected will turn to be no-shows.

b) What is the most likely value for X?

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{4,0}.(0.1)^{0}.(0.9)^{4} = 0.6561$

$P(X = 1) = C_{4,1}.(0.1)^{1}.(0.9)^{3} = 0.2916$

$P(X = 2) = C_{4,2}.(0.1)^{2}.(0.9)^{2} = 0.0486$

$P(X = 3) = C_{4,3}.(0.1)^{3}.(0.9)^{1} = 0.0036$

$P(X = 4) = C_{4,4}.(0.1)^{4}.(0.9)^{0} = 0.0001$

X = 0 has the highest probability, which means that 0 is the most likely value for X.

7 0

3 years ago

40081 in scientific notation

Maksim231197 [3]

4.0081 x 10 to the 4th power. I know because I did this one.

4 0

4 years ago

Which will have a higher effective interest rate — a payday loan for $1900 that is due in 14 days with a fee of $80, or a payday

Pie

Answer:

It's D.

Step-by-step explanation:

The shorter period loan has the same total interest for the same loan amount, so it has the higher effective interest rate: 80/12 is higher than 89/14.

6 0

3 years ago