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Doss [256]
3 years ago
8

PLEASE HELP ASAP

Mathematics
1 answer:
Igoryamba3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

∠1 - 40°

Step-by-step explanation:

∠1 - 40°

b/c it's a right triangle and we have two angles given, 50° and 90°. Add them and subtract by 180° and get 40°.

∠2 - 140°

b/c an exterior (outside) angle is equal to the two most isolated / farthest angles added. The two most is angles are 105° and 35°, add them and get 140°.

∠3 - 40°

b/c ∠'s 1 and 3 are vertical angles meaning they're equal so since ∠1 is 40°, so is ∠3.

∠4 -

b/c ∠' s 2 and 4 are vertical angles meaning they're equal so since ∠2 is 140°, so is ∠4.

∠5 - 35°

b/c we have two angles, 105° and 40°. Add them and subtract by 180° and get 35°.

~~

I hope that helps you out!!

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Answer / Explanation

The question is incomplete. It can be found in search engines. However, kindly find the complete question below.

Question

(1) Give an example of functions f : A −→ B and g : B −→ C such that g ◦ f is injective but g is not  injective.

(2) Suppose that f : A −→ B and g : B −→ C are functions and that g ◦ f is surjective. Is it true  that f must be surjective? Is it true that g must be surjective? Justify your answers with either a  counterexample or a proof

Answer

(1) There are lots of correct answers. You can set A = {1}, B = {2, 3} and C = {4}. Then define f : A −→ B by f(1) = 2 and g : B −→ C by g(2) = 4 and g(3) = 4. Then g is not  injective (since both 2, 3 7→ 4) but g ◦ f is injective.  Here’s another correct answer using more familiar functions.

Let f : R≥0 −→ R be given by f(x) = √

x. Let g : R −→ R be given by g(x) = x , 2  . Then g is not  injective (since g(1) = g(−1)) but g ◦ f : R≥0 −→ R is injective since it sends x 7→ x.

NOTE: Lots of groups did some variant of the second example. I took off points if they didn’t  specify the domain and codomain though. Note that the codomain of f must equal the domain of

g for g ◦ f to make sense.

(2) Answer

Solution: There are two questions in this problem.

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