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Jet001 [13]
3 years ago
15

A country has constant opportunity cost of production. If they devote all of their resources to the production of blankets they

can produce a total of 810 per week. If they devote all of their resources to the production of t-shirts they can produce a total of 294 shirts per week. What is the opportunity cost of producing 1 t-shirt? Enter a number rounded to two decimal places, such as 32.47 or 4.30. Do not enter any other words or characters.
Business
1 answer:
Zigmanuir [339]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: 2.75 blankets.

Explanation:

The opportunity cost is the value of a good that is sacrificed by choosing some other alternative. So, there are certain costs associated with the consumption of some goods.

In our case,

Opportunity cost of producing 1 shirt = \frac{810}{294}

                                                              = 2.75 blankets

Opportunity cost of producing 1 shirt is 2.75 blankets which means that 2.75 blankets have to be foregone to produce 1 shirt.

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You wish to retire in 15 years, at which time you want to have accumulated enough money to receive an annual annuity of $31,000
kupik [55]

Answer:

$ 5,507.47

Explanation:

There are two steps involved in solving this question ,first we need to determine the present of annuity of $31,000 receivable per year after retirement  at retirement date,then use that to calculate the annual contribution:

=-pv(rate,nper,pmt,fv)

rate is the rate of interest during retirement which is 14%

nper is the period during which the $31000 would be received which is 20

pmt is the $31000 annuity per year

fv is the future worth of the annuity which is unknown

=-pv(14%,20,31000,0)=$ 205,317.05  

The present value above is the future value of the retirement contributions

annual contribution=pmt(rate,nper,pv,-fv)=pmt(12%,15,0, 205317.05) =$ 5,507.47

5 0
2 years ago
Merchandise inventory is classified on the balance sheet as a
daser333 [38]

Answer:

Merchandise inventory is classified on the balance sheet as a current asset.

Explanation:

Merchandise inventory refers to the price of products that are available for sale and they are classified as a current asset.

Current assets are the cash and the other assets that can be turn into cash within a year, like inventory as there is a good opportunity that the products are sold in that period which makes inventory to be included in the current assets on the balance sheet.

6 0
3 years ago
Kathleen has two investment opportunities. She can invest in The Sunglasses Company or the Umbrella Company. She estimates there
zubka84 [21]

Answer:

Explanation:

Attachment below

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The following is an estimated demand function:
Tanzania [10]

Answer:

The predicted value of sales is $75,037,500.

Explanation:

Given:

Q = 875 + 6XA + 15Y - 5P ……………………..(1)

Where:

Q = quantity sold = ?

XA = Advertising = $100,000

Y = Income = $10,000

P = Price = $100

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

Q = 875 + (6 * 100,000) + (15 * 10,000) - (5 * 100)

Q = 750,375

Therefore, we have:

Predicted value of sales = Q * P = 750,375 * $100 = $75,037,500

Therefore, the predicted value of sales is $75,037,500.

3 0
3 years ago
11. If you want to have a return for your Final Portfolio (that is invested between Optimal Risky portfolio and Risk Free Securi
melamori03 [73]

Answer:

Answer is explained in the explanation section.

Explanation:

Note: First of all, this question is incomplete and lacks necessary data to calculate this question. However, I have found the similar question on the internet with complete data given. Additionally, I have shared that data as well in the attachment below for your convenience, Thanks.

Solution:

SD = Standard Deviation

Using utility function, E(R) = Rp - 0.005 x A x SD^{2} = 1.34 - 0.005 x 3x 4.06^{2}

Using utility function, E(R) = 1.093%

If the weight in the risky portfolio is let's say, "a" then,

weight in the risk-free asset = 1 - a

So,

E(R) = a x Rp + (1 - a) x Rf

1.093% = a x 1.34% + (1 - a) x 0.50%

Solving for "a"

a = 70.56% - weight in risky portfolio

and 1 - a = 29.44% - weight in risk-free asset.

Similarly, if you want a return of 1.10%,

we can follow the above steps and get

1.1% = a x 1.34% + (1 - a) x 0.5%

Weight in risky portfolio,

a = 71.43%

weight in risk-free asset,

1 - a = 28.57%

5 0
2 years ago
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