Answer:
The option (B) Debit Work in Process Inventory $72.000 credit Factory Wages Payable $172,000 is correct
Explanation:
Solution
Given that:
As the cost of labor was sustained as regards to processing the inventory and it was not completed, so debit the work in process of account.
There also exits a liability of paying labor charges for this it will be payable.
Hence credit factory wages payable.
For the other options they are crediting cash which is not yet paid, here the option A and E is wrong.
For option D, they are crediting inventory which in this case is not correct due to the existence of a liability for paying labor fees.
The option D is wrong, because they debited with the cost of sold goods.
Answer:
Correct answer is C. $ dollars.
Calculation:
Rate of Retun PU = (21%*605,000)/58,700 = 2.16
Fixed factory overhead PU = 38,500/58,700 = 0.66
Fixed selling and administration PU= 8000/58,700 = 0.14
Variable DM PU = 5.17
Variable Labour PU = 1.88
Variable FOH PU = 1.33
Variable selling and Admin PU = 4.5
By adding all above mentioned per unit cost we get 15 dollars aprox
so
Correct answer is 15 dollar.
NOTE: Your question isn't clear, Johnson. Would you mind checking it and writing it in a way you can be better helped?
Meanwhile, I hope these explanation below helps.
Answer and Explanation:
Two goods are said to be complementary goods if an increase in the price of a particular one leads to a commensurate decrease in the demand that buyers placed for the other one.
A good is said to be a normal good if the reason for an increase in demand is due to an increase in the income of the buyers.
A good is said to be an inferior good if there is a decrease in demand even though the buyers have experienced increase in their income.
Answer:
I will accept the offer if the price per painting is $56,312.41 or higher.
Explanation:
We will calculate the present value of the other option which is, selling our painting as a freelancer.
C 315,000.00
time 5
rate 0.2
PV $942,042.8241
Now, we subtract the signing bonus of 100,000
942,042.83 - 100,000 = 842,042.83
And solve for the annual proceeds from the painting we need to equalize the opportunity cost:
PV 842,042.83
time 5
rate 0.2
C $ 281,562.03
Now, we divide by the 5 painting per year:
$281,562.03 per year / 5 painting per year = $56,312.41
Answer:
The correct answer is the third option: Is the product already offered by competing firms?
Explanation:
To begin with, if the a company is looking forward to measure the success of a new product by asking three fundamental questions then the most important ones are those that implicates the satisfaction of the consumers and of the managers that work in the financial area due to the fact that they are the ones who make all the calculates and decide in what to invest, therefore that the success of the product will be achieved if it satisfies the technical requirements of the clients, if it is consider viable and valuable and if the sales were good enough to satify the producer's financial requirements.
