The correct option is (a) sales; average book value of fixed assets.
The fixed asset turnover ratio is computed as sales divided by average book value of fixed assets.
The fixed asset turnover ratio demonstrates the effectiveness of a company's current fixed assets in driving sales. A greater ratio suggests that management is making better use of its fixed assets. No information can be gleaned from a high FAT ratio about a company's capacity to produce reliable earnings or cash flows.
The ratio of sales to the value of fixed assets is known as fixed-asset turnover. It shows how effectively the company is generating sales by utilizing its fixed assets.
A greater ratio is typically preferred since it suggests that the business is effective at producing sales or revenues from its asset base. A lower ratio suggests that a business is not utilizing its resources effectively and may be experiencing internal issues.
Learn more about fixed asset turnover ratio
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Yes, because harassing grandma is unnecessary and rude.
Ask what <u>coverage </u>is included for $100.
A low cost policy may not be an all-inclusive policy- you always have to look at the details.
Answer:one firm receives patent protection for certain basic produced process.
Explanation: when a firm get patent , monopoly sets in as the firm will be the only one involved in the production of that goods and services throughout the duration of that patent.
WACC is the weighted average cost of capital already borrowed/invested.
Marginal cost of capital is the cost that will be incurred if one more $ of capital is raised either by equity or by debt.
So if more capital is borrowed and has a resulting higher marginal cost, the WACC increases as well.
