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Elis [28]
3 years ago
14

Assume that the risk-free rate is 3.5% and the market risk premium is 6%. 1. What is the required return for the overall stock m

arket? Round your answer to two decimal places.2. What is the required rate of return on a stock with a beta of 2.3? Round your answer to two decimal places.
Business
1 answer:
Radda [10]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

9.5 %

17.3%

Explanation:

The market required rate of return = risk free rate + ( Market Beta × Market risk premium)

= 3.5% + (1 × 6%) = 9.5%

The stock required rate of return = 3.5% + (2.3 × 6%) = 0.173 = 17.3%

I hope my answer helps you

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Connolly Company produces two types of lamps, classic and fancy, with unit contribution margins of $13 and $21, respectively. Ea
Eva8 [605]

Answer:

a. 90,000 classic lamps; 0 fancy lamps

Explanation:

To determine the optimise total contribution, we need to calculate the contribution margin per hour of machine time for both the lamps. Then the result of whichever is higher would be produced.

Moreover, as there is no limitation on how many lamps can be produced, therefore, we would assume that we can make as many as we want up to the limit of machine-hours available. The calculation is done as follows:

Contribution margin per hour of machine time for classic lamp = Contribution/machine hours to build one classic lamp

Contribution margin per hour of machine time for classic lamp = 13 / 0.2

Contribution margin per hour of machine time for classic lamp = 65

Contribution margin per hour of machine time for fancy lamp = Contribution/machine hours to build one fancy lamp

Contribution margin per hour of machine time for fancy lamp = 21 / 0.5

Contribution margin per hour of machine time for fancy lamp = 42

Since classic lamp has the higher contribution margin per hour. Therefore, all the machine hours would be used to make classic lamps.

= 18,000 / 0.2

= 90,000

Hence, 90,000 classic lamps would be sold while no fancy lamps will be sold to optimise total contribution (which would be 65 x 18,000 = $1,170,000).

7 0
3 years ago
The law of comparative advantage indicates thata. specialization and exchange will permit trading partners to maximize their joi
Oliga [24]

Answer:

The correct answer is option a.

Explanation:

The law of comparative advantage states that a country should produce and export that product in which it experiences comparatively lower opportunity costs. The countries will be said to be specializing in the production of goods and services that they can produce at a relatively lower opportunity cost.  

If two countries produce and exchange the goods they specialize in, they will be able to jointly produce more and consume more than they could individually.

3 0
3 years ago
Suppose there are only two goods in the world, x and y. Assume the consumer has spent all their money so they are on their budge
Paraphin [41]

Answer:

Consumption of good y should decrease

The Marginal Utility should also decrease

Explanation:

Marginal utility of a good is the added satisfaction that a consumer gets from consuming additional units of the good.

Given the two goods x and y, and MUx/Px > MUy/Py.

The Marginal Utility Price Ratio indicates the Utility/Satisfaction derived from the last Dollars spent.

To allocate a budget efficiently, the marginal utility for each item should be equal.

A good has a higher marginal utility-price ratio is the good that the consumer should consume more of.

If the Marginal Utility-Price ratio of good x is greater than that of good y, your consumption of good y should decrease and therefore, the MUy will also decrease.

6 0
3 years ago
Van Den Borsh Corp. has annual sales of $68,735,000, an average inventory level of $15,012,000, and average accounts receivable
Romashka-Z-Leto [24]

Answer:

The answer is d. -32 days.

Explanation:

<u>*The before change cash conversion cycle</u> = Days of inventory outstanding + Days of receivables outstanding - Days of payable outstanding.

in which:

Days of inventory outstanding = Average inventory / Cost of good sold x 365 = ( 15,012,000 / ( 68,735,000 x 0.85) ) x 365 = 94 days

Days of receivables outstanding = Average Receivables / Revenue x 365 = ( 10,008,000 / 68,735,000 x 365 = 53 days

Days of payable = 30 days

=> Before change cash conversion cycle = 117 days.

* <u>The after-change cash conversion cycle</u> is calculated with the same formula, however with estimated changes be applied in the formula as followed:

Days of inventory outstanding = Average inventory / Cost of good sold x 365 = ( (15,012,000 - 1,946,000) / ( 68,735,000 x 0.85) ) x 365 = 82 days

Days of receivables outstanding = Average Receivables / Revenue x 365 = ( (10,008,000 - 1,946,000) / 68,735,000 x 365 = 43 days

Days of payable = 40 days

=> After-change cash conversion cycle = 82 + 43 - 40 = 85 days

<u>=> Net change is 85 - 117 = -32 days</u>

6 0
3 years ago
Department a had sales of $100,000.00, Department B had sales of $500,000.00, and total...
weeeeeb [17]
It would be 10,333.33
6 0
3 years ago
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