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vichka [17]
2 years ago
10

Suppose a supply shock shifts the aggregate supply curve from AS1 to AS2, and decreases output below full employment. If the Fed

then decreases the money supply, it will Group of answer choices decrease the price level and shift the aggregate demand curve to the right until output returns to its full-employment level stabilize the price level and return output to its full-employment level stabilize the price level, but cause a further decline in output increase both output and the price level return output to its full-employment level, but at the expense of an increase in the price level
Business
1 answer:
Tomtit [17]2 years ago
7 0

Answer: Stabilize the price level, but cause a further decline in output

Explanation:

If the Fed decreases the money supply, there will be less money in the economy therefore people will demand goods and services less.

This will shift the Aggregate demand curve to the left where it will intersect with the AS2 curve at a price level lower than the price level as a result of the supply shock thereby stabilizing the price level.

This would however, result in a further drop in output as there is now less demand for goods so suppliers will produce less.

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ZanzabumX [31]

Answer:

HIIIIIIIIIIIIIIII

Explanation:

Nm, Hbu?

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Two economists estimate the government expenditure multiplier and come up with different results. One estimates the multiplier a
GaryK [48]

Answer: (B)

Compared to the first economist, the second economist must be assuming either a smaller induced increase in consumption, a larger crowding out effect, or both.

Explanation:

First of all, I'll like to explain some terms:

- Government Expenditure Multiplier is an index or figure showing the percentage by which Gross domestic product (GDP) will increase, when Government Expenditure increases; all other kinds of expenditure held constant

- the GDP equation is

GDP= C + I + G + (X-M)

Where C = consumption expenditure (by individuals)

I = investment expenditure (by firms)

G = government expenditure

(X-M) = international trade (export-import) expenditure

- If we hold other independent variables constant and measure the government expenditure multiplier, we will derive the index that shows the amount by which an increase in G will increase GDP.

Now to the question;

Crowding out effect means an act by the government to purchase so much more domestic goods and services than they previously purchased.

This is done deliberately by the government for various reasons: to boost the economy, to provide social welfare goods, and to kick-start national projects.

It is called "crowding out" because these huge government purchases limit private sector purchases.

If the 2nd economist assumes a larger crowding out effect, that means greater government expenditure, then this rhymes with the higher GM (government expenditure multiplier) that his estimate produces. GM of 1.25 means that a percent increase in G will increase GDP by 25%.

On the other hand, Economist 1's estimate of 0.75 implies a 25% decrease in GDP (coming from a decrease in G), which explains his part of option B. He (economist 1) is assuming a lesser crowding out effect.

If we add the assumption of Economist 2 that there'll be smaller induced increase in consumption, it follows that C will have a less positive impact on GDP.

If we combine both changes in C and G, we also have G producing more increase in GDP.

You are welcome.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The price of milk at the local grocery store is cut by 15%. In response to the price cut, the quantity of milk demanded falls by
Crank

Answer:

the absolute value is -0.33 and it is inelastic

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

The Absolute value of Price Elasticity of Demand (PED) is

= Percentage Change in Quantity Demanded ÷ Percentage Change in Price

= 0.05 ÷ (-0.15)

= -0.33

Since the price elasticity of demand is less than one so here there is an inelastic demand

Therefore the absolute value is -0.33 and it is inelastic

6 0
3 years ago
Select the most likely outcome of making only on-time minimum payments to a credit
Gennadij [26K]

The answer is <u>"B. Your payments will have gone mostly towards paying interest and you will still owe the majority of the balance that you had from a year ago."</u>


At the point when this happen your profile would be appear as monetarily hazardous by other money related foundation in the market.  

This would make your credit score to tumble down, and would make it extremely hard for you to acquire some other type of advance later on.  

When you make just the minimum installment on your credit card, you're giving yourself impermanent help. But on the other hand you're focusing on paying more in intrigue charges later. That exchange off can get you into genuine budgetary inconvenience after some time, particularly if your card charges a high interest rate.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A company purchased a new delivery van at a cost of $51,000 on July 1. The delivery van is estimated to have a useful life of 6
Yanka [14]

Answer:

Annual depreciation (partial)= $3,925

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to calculate the annual depreciation:</u>

Annual depreciation= (original cost - salvage value)/estimated life (years)

Annual depreciation= (51,000 - 3,900) / 6

Annual depreciation= $7,850

<u>Now, the depreciation for 6 months:</u>

Annual depreciation (partial)= (7,850/12)*6

Annual depreciation (partial)= $3,925

4 0
3 years ago
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