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Novosadov [1.4K]
3 years ago
15

Borwan Company uses the weighted-average method in its process costing system. The Assembly Department started the month with 8,

000 units in its beginning work in process inventory that were 70% complete with respect to conversion costs. An additional 69,000 units were transferred in from the prior department during the month to begin processing in the Assembly Department. There were 5,000 units in the ending work in process inventory of the Assembly Department that were 20% complete with respect to conversion costs. What were the equivalent units for conversion costs in the Assembly Department for the month
Business
1 answer:
Gnoma [55]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

73,000 units

Explanation:

The computation of equivalent units for conversion costs is shown below:-

Equivalent units = Units transferred ÷ Finished goods + (Units in closing Work in progress × Percentage of completion)

= (8,000 + 69,000 - 5,000) + (5,000 × 20%)

= 72,000 + 1,000

= 73,000 units

Therefore for computing the Equivalent units we simply applied the above formula.

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Answer:

Explanation:

The preparation of the report form balance sheet as of August 31, 2019 is presented below:

                                      Sentinel Travel Service

                                 Report form balance sheet

                              For the year ended August 31, 2019

Assets

Cash                                             $143,125

Account receivable                     $54,240

Supplies                                       $9,300      

Land                                             $248,000

Total assets                                 $454,665

Liabilities

Account payable                        $19,370

Owner equity

Ending capital                            $435,295

Total liabilities

And owners equity                    $454,665

The net income would be

= Fees earned - Office expense - Miscellaneous expense - Wages expense

= $774,800 - $178,205- $15,495 - $371,905

= $209,195

And, the ending capital would be

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7 0
3 years ago
A good is excludable if: a) Those who are unwilling or unable to pay for the good do not obtain its benefits. b) It is not possi
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Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": Those who are unwilling or unable to pay for the good do not obtain its benefits.

Explanation:

The excludability feature of goods does not allow individuals to have access to them without having paid for them. Thus, non-excludable goods are those that no one cannot prevent its use. <em>Private goods</em> (clothing, vehicles, houses) are excludable but they are also considered rival goods since when one person uses it another individual cannot consume the goods.

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A random sample of 16 students selected from the student body of a large university had an average age of 25 years and a standar
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Which of the following production costs, if expressed on a per unit basis, would be most likely to change significantly as the p
Romashka-Z-Leto [24]

Answer:

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3 0
3 years ago
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