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Answer:</h3>
Debiting salaries Expense $400 and Crediting Salaries payable $400.
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Explanation:</h3>
We are given;
1 employees earns $ 100 a day
Therefore;
2 employees will earn $ 200 a day
The month ends on Tuesday, but the two employees works on Monday and Tuesday.
- Therefore, the month-end adjusting entry to record will be the amount earned by the two employees on the two days.
Two employees for 2 days = $200/day × 2 days
= $400
- But, salary is an expense, and in the accounts an increase in expense account is debited.
- According to the rule of double entry, an increase in salaries expense decreases the salaries payable. Therefore, we debit salaries expense account and credit salaries payable account.
- Therefore, the month-end adjusting entry to record the salaries earned but unpaid would be;
Debiting salaries Expense $400 and Crediting Salaries payable $400.
Answer:
false
Explanation:
you are always learning something
The amount of interest expense for an interesting period is calculated by multiplying the carrying value of the bonds at the beginning of the period by the effective interest rate.
Amortization is an accounting approach used to periodically decrease the ebook value of a loan or an intangible asset over a fixed time frame. Concerning a mortgage, amortization focuses on spreading out mortgage bills through the years. When applied to an asset, amortization is similar to depreciation.
Amortized price is an accounting approach in which all economic properties need to be suggested on a stability sheet at their amortized fee that is identical to their acquisition general minus their essential payments and any reductions or charges minus any impairment losses and change variations.
Input the corresponding values in cells B1 thru B3. In cellular B4, input the components "=-PMT(B2/1200, B3*12, B1)" to have Excel routinely calculate the monthly charge. As an example, in case you had a $25,000 mortgage at 6.5 percent annual hobby for 10 years, the month-to-month fee could be $283.87.
Learn more about the method of amortization here brainly.com/question/10561878
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Answer:
Intensive
Explanation:
Because the goods are expensive, and complex and requires pre-purchase assistance, the channels for this product has to be very intensive as there would be continuous purchasing as well as assistance request for the product. This simply means that service delivery and channels are to be manned intensively to meet the needs of the customers.
I hope this helps.
Answer:
$67,000
Explanation:
Miller$72,000/60%=$ 120,000 loss to eliminate capital
Tyson$72,000/20%=$ 360,000 loss to eliminate capital
Watson$19,000/20%=$ 95,000 loss to eliminate capital
Watson is the partner most vulnerable to a loss of $95,000 which will inturn eliminate Watson's capital balance
Hence:
$162,000-$95,000
=$67,000
Therefore if the loss on disposal is less than $95,000, all partners will retain positive capital balances and receive some cash in liquidation reason been that other assets which is $162,000, must be sold for any amount over $67,000 for all partners to get cash.
