The cash flow (payment or receipt) made for a given period or set of periods. The present value, PV, of a series of cash flows is the present value, at time 0, of the sum of the present values of all cash flows, CF. We start with the formula for PV of a future value ( FV) single lump sum at time n and interest rate.
Yw and pls mark me as brainiest
The answer is a half second to five seconds.
The brainest answer would be appreciated.
Determine why it worked or why it did not.
Answer:
-0.523 and inelastic
Explanation:
The computation of the price elasticity of demand using mid point formula is given below:
= (change in quantity demanded ÷ average of quantity demanded) ÷ (percentage change in price ÷ average of quantity demanded)
where,
Change in quantity demanded is
= Q2 - Q1
= 150 units - 200 units
= -50 units
And, average of quantity demanded would be
= (150 units + 200 units ) ÷ 2
= 175 units
Change in price would be
= P2 - P1
= 3,500 - 2,000
= 1,500
And, average of price would be
= (3,500 + 2,000) ÷ 2
= 2750
So, after solving this, the price is -0.523
Since the price elasticity of demand is less than 1 so it would be inelastic
Answer:
Material A = 234,000 lbs.
Material B = 39,000 lbs.
Explanation:
First we must determine how many units we have to manufacture:
expected sales + ending inventory - beginning inventory = 76,000 + 10,500 - 8,500 = 78,000 units to be manufactured
now we calculate the amount of direct materials used:
Material A: 78,000 units x 3 lbs. per unit = 234,000 lbs.
Material B: 78,000 units x 1/2 lb. per unit = 39,000 lbs.
