Answer:
a condition or circumstance that puts a company in a favourable or superior business position.
Answer:
The loss of the financial institution is $413,000
Explanation:
Let's say that after 3 years the financial institution will receive:
0.5 * 10% of $10million
= 0.5 * 0.1 * 10000000
= $500,000
Then, they will pay 0.5 * 9% of $10M
= 0.5 * 0.09 * 10000000
= $450,000
Therefore, their immediate loss would be $500000 - $450000
= $50000.
Let's assume that forward rates are realized to value the rest of the swap.
The forward rates = 8% per annum.
Therefore, the remaining cash flows are assumed that floating payment is
0.5*0.08*10000000 =
$400,000
Received net payment would be:
500,000-400,000= $100,000. The total cost of default is therefore the cost of foregoing the following cash flows:
Year 3=$50,000
Year 3.5=$100,000
Year 4 = $100,000
Year 4.5= $100,000
Year 5 = $100,000
Discounting these cash flows to year 3 at 4% per six months, the cost of default would be $413,000
the answer is 4 because 4 plus 1 equal 8 and 2 plus 4 equal 4
Answer:
The WACC before bond issuance is 3.9% and the WACC after bond issuance is 3.71%
Explanation:
In order to calculate the WACC before bond issuance
, we would have to calculate first the cost of equity using capital asset pricing model
.
So Using CAPM we have Rf + Beta x Market risk premium
=
0.5% + 0.85 * 4%
= 3.9%
. cost of equity
Therefore WACC before bond issuance = (Cost of equity x weight of equity + cost of debt (1-tax) x weight of debt)
= 3.9%
. WACC before bond issuance will be equal to cost of equity in this case as there is no debt issue.
In order to calculate the WACC after bond issuance we make the following calculation:
WACC after bond issuance = (Cost of equity x weight of equity + cost of debt (1-tax) x weight of debt)
= (3.9% x 0.9) + (2% x 0.1)
= 3.51% + 0.2%
= 3.71%
