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viva [34]
3 years ago
5

What distinguishes open-ended credit from closed-ended credit?

Business
2 answers:
Naily [24]3 years ago
7 0

The main difference is must repay vs doesn’t need to repay.

<u>Explanation: </u>

Closed-end credit is a payment agreement in which the debtor is expected to repay the tax due plus the interest in a particular number of equivalent arrangements, typically on a monthly basis.

Open-ended loan, credit is provided in anticipation of any payment so that the debtor does not have to repay every period the credit is demanded.

Car and ship loans are prominent examples of closed-end loans. On the other side, open-ended loans, such as credit card payments, can have the amount owed up and down as the creditor takes money against the line of credit.

KiRa [710]3 years ago
6 0

Open-ended credit is credit that can be used repeatedly.

Example: A credit card

Close-ended credit is credit that has to be paid in full by a certain date

Example: A house loan (mortgage)

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For each of the following fiscal policy proposals, determine whether the primary focus is on aggregate demand, aggregate supply,
Bad White [126]

Answer:

2. (i) demand-side; (ii) both; (iii) supply-side; (iv) supply-side; (v) both

Explanation:

a. $1,000 per person tax reduction  ⇒ focus on aggregate demand (more money for consumers to spend)

b. a 5% reduction in all tax rates  ⇒ focus on both aggregate demand and supply (more money for consumers and suppliers)

c. Pell Grants, which are government subsidies for college education  ⇒ focus on aggregate supply (more money for suppliers of college education)

d. government-sponsored prizes for new scientific discoveries ⇒ focus on aggregate supply (more money for suppliers of new scientific discoveries)

e. an increase in unemployment compensation  ⇒ focus on both aggregate demand and supply (more money for consumers resulting in higher prices and lower output)

4 0
3 years ago
Anya is a general manager for a large department store. Each day she plans the number of employees she will have in each departm
Vitek1552 [10]

The process of planning the break schedules and the freight delivery schedules is known as an operational planning.

<h3>What is an operational planning?</h3>

This refers to the outlining of key targets that a firm will undertake during a period of time that is usually one year.

Hence, the process of planning the break schedules and the freight delivery schedules is known as an operational planning.

Therefore, the Option A is correct.

Read more about operational planning

<em>brainly.com/question/15994861</em>

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4 0
2 years ago
Following is a partial process cost summary for Mitchell Manufacturing's Canning Department. Equivalent Units of Production Dire
tensa zangetsu [6.8K]

Answer:

5. $232,000.

Explanation:

The computation of the  total conversion costs transferred out of the Canning Department equals to

= Number of units completed and transferred out × Cost per equivalent unit

= 80,000 units × $2.90

= $232,000

In order to find out the total conversion cost, we simply multiplied the number of units completed and transferred out with the cost per equivalent unit

3 0
3 years ago
In an attempt to understand its target markets better, Intel Labs Flexible displays group has been studying the product adoption
Andru [333]

Answer:

Three categories of adopters who will adopt flexible displays.

Explanation:

Intel Labs can expect to find all of the following EXCEPT that there are three categories of adopters who will adopt flexible displays. Market specialists have characterised purchasers into five classes based on their selection of an item during various phases of such item's reality cycle. The 5 adopter classes are Innovators, Early adopters, Early majority, Late majority and Laggards.  

8 0
3 years ago
Amy and Mitchell share equally in the profits, losses, and capital of the accrual basis AM Products LLC. The LLC does not need t
Len [333]

Answer: See explanation

Explanation:

Share of ordinary income:

= (Ordinary income - Wages - Depreciation)/2

= (900,000 - 200,000 - 300,000)/2

= 400,000/2

= 200,000

Share of net short term capital gain

= (12,000 - 6,000) × 50%

= 6,000 × 0.5

= 3,000

Share of interest income

= 4000 × 50%

= 4000 × 0.5

= 2000

Share of charitable contribution deduction

= 4000 × 50%

= 4000 × 0.5

= 2000

7 0
3 years ago
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