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3 years ago

Why do some lenders require borrowers to secure credit

Business

1 answer:

joja [24]3 years ago

4 0

Complete Question:

Why do some lenders require borrowers to secure credit?

A. To prevent defaults

B. To guarantee full repayment

C. To avoid any losses

D. To reduce risk

Answer:

Option D. To reduce risk

Explanation:

The reason is that the lender faces the credit risk which is the risk of the loss of the repayment in whole or in parts and the risk of default of the interest payments by the borrower.

So if we see the options, the option A, B and C are basically the credit risk that the lender is facing so the only option that is more general (not specific as the option A, B and C) and includes these three options is option D.

So the option D is correct.

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Rent controls force landlords to price apartments below the equilibrium price level. An immediate effect is a shortage (excess d

IrinaK [193]

Answer:

Option (a) and (c) are correct.

Explanation:

We know that rent control is an example of price ceiling. If the price of apartments set below the equilibrium price level then there is increase in the demand for apartments. So, the demand for apartments exceeds quantity supplied at the prevailing market price.

(a) Therefore, the quality of rental housing falls because of the lower price of the apartment. As this will become less profitable for the landlords, so they are least interested in the maintenance of the apartments.

(b) This will also lead to develop black market. The landlords are trying to fool the higher authorities and rent their apartments at a higher cost because this will be done without any type of legal documentation of the apartments or results from the manipulation of the rules.

6 0

3 years ago

Final Finishing is considering three mutually exclusive alternatives for a new polisher. Each alternative has an expected life o

valkas [14]

Answer:

1. 18.09%

2. 12%

3. 20.02%

Explanation:

As the MARR is 15%, we will accept projects which have IRR more than 15%. As the projects are mutually exclusive, we will choose only one project.

An IRR (Internal Rate of Return) is the rate which makes the NPV (Net Present Value) = ZERO.

The formula to calculate IRR is: 0 = P0 + P1/(1+IRR) + P2/(1+IRR)2 + P3/(1+IRR)3 + . . . +Pn/(1+IRR)n where P0 = Initial cash outflow

And P1, . . . Pn equals the cash inflows in periods 1, 2, . . . n, respectively.

1) IRR of project 1:

0 = -$20,000 + $4,465/(1+IRR)1 + $4,465/(1+IRR)2 + $4,465/(1+IRR)3 + . . . + $4,465/(1+IRR)10

Solving for IRR we have = 18.09%

2) IRR of project 2:

0 = -$10,000 + $1,770/(1+IRR)1 + $1,770/(1+IRR)2 + $1,770/(1+IRR)3 + . . . + $1,770/(1+IRR)10

Solving for IRR we have = 12%

3) IRR of project 3:

0 = -$15,000 + $3,580/(1+IRR)1 + $3,580/(1+IRR)2 + $3,580/(1+IRR)3 + . . . + $3,580/(1+IRR)10

Solving for IRR we have = 20.02%

We will choose project 3 as it has the highest IRR.

8 0

3 years ago

Luthan Company uses a predetermined overhead rate of $22.60 per direct labor-hour. This predetermined rate was based on a cost f

Anit [1.1K]

Answer:

$248,600

Explanation:

The computation of amount of manufacturing overhead is shown below:-

Amount of manufacturing overhead would have been applied = Predetermined overhead rate × Actual direct labor-hours

= $22.60 × 11,000

= $248,600

Therefore for computing the amount of manufacturing overhead we simply multiply the Predetermined overhead rate with Actual direct labor-hours

5 0

3 years ago

Copy equipment was acquired at the beginning of the year at a cost of $56,000 that has an estimated residual value of $8,000 and

sergeinik [125]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

The depreciable cost is the result of deducting from the purchase price the salvage value:

Depreciable cost= 56,000 - 8,000

Depreciable cost= $48,000

The depreciable rate is the depreciation that the asset suffers in one year express as a percentage:

Depreciation rate= 1/5 = 0.2 or 20% per year

Finally, the units of production depreciation for the first year:

Annual depreciation= [(original cost - salvage value)/useful life of production in copies]*number of copies

Annual depreciation= (48,000/1,000,000)*240,000

Annual depreciation= 0.048*240,000

Annual depreciation= $11,520

5 0

3 years ago

Jun. 15 Several MBA groups participate in TEAM adventures. Great Adventures provides services on account for $24,000 to these gr

zubka84 [21]

Answer:

June 15

Dr. Account Receivable $24,000

Cr. Service Revenue $24,000

At the time of Receipt in July

Dr. Cash $24,000

Cr. Account Receivable $24,000

Explanation:

As the Services are performed on June 15, and Great Venture has a right to received the payment against the services provided. So, the revenue is recognized and The payment for the services has not been made yet. This result in the creation of account receivable, That is expected to receive in July.

In July the payment is received. The cash account will be debited as the cash is received and on the other hand account receivable will be credited to remove the due balance of $24,000 from receivables balance.

5 0

3 years ago