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Nataliya [291]
3 years ago
5

Final Finishing is considering three mutually exclusive alternatives for a new polisher. Each alternative has an expected life o

f 10 years and no salvage value. Polisher 1 requires an initial investment of $20,000 and provides annual benefits of $4,465. Polisher 2 requires an initial investment of $10,000 and provides annual benefits of $1,770. Polisher 3 requires an initial investment of $15,000 and provides annual benefits of $3,580. MARR is 15%/year.
Show the comparisons and internal rates of return used to make your decision:

Based on an internal rate of return analysis, which polisher should be recommended?
Business
1 answer:
valkas [14]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

1. 18.09%

2. 12%

3. 20.02%  

Explanation:

As the MARR is 15%, we will accept projects which have IRR more than 15%. As the projects are mutually exclusive, we will choose only one project.

An IRR (Internal Rate of Return) is the rate which makes the NPV (Net Present Value) = ZERO.

The formula to calculate IRR is: 0 = P0 + P1/(1+IRR) + P2/(1+IRR)2 + P3/(1+IRR)3 + . . . +Pn/(1+IRR)n where P0 = Initial cash outflow

And P1, . . . Pn equals the cash inflows in periods 1, 2, . . . n, respectively.      

1) IRR of project 1:

0 = -$20,000 + $4,465/(1+IRR)1 + $4,465/(1+IRR)2 + $4,465/(1+IRR)3 + . . . + $4,465/(1+IRR)10

Solving for IRR we have = 18.09%

2) IRR of project 2:

0 = -$10,000 + $1,770/(1+IRR)1 + $1,770/(1+IRR)2 + $1,770/(1+IRR)3 + . . . + $1,770/(1+IRR)10

Solving for IRR we have = 12%

3) IRR of project 3:

0 = -$15,000 + $3,580/(1+IRR)1 + $3,580/(1+IRR)2 + $3,580/(1+IRR)3 + . . . + $3,580/(1+IRR)10

Solving for IRR we have = 20.02%

We will choose project 3 as it has the highest IRR.

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Answer:

(a) The cash flows is $59,040.

(b) The cash flows is $71,040.

Explanation:

From the  Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS) Tables, the depreciation rates for the first 3 years for an asset falling under the MACRS five-year class are 20%, 32% and 19.2%. Therefore, we have:

Accumulated depreciation rate = 20% + 32% + 19.2% = 71.20%

Accumulated depreciation = Cost of the asset * Accumulated depreciation rate =  $200,000 * 71.20% = $142,400

Net book value of the asset = Cost of the asset - Accumulated depreciation = $200,000 - $142,400 = $57,600

We can now proceed as follows:

(a) Calculate the cash flows if the asset is sold now at $60,000

Capital gains = Sales proceeds - Net book value = $60,000 - $57,600 = $2,400

Capital gains tax = Capital gains * Tax rate = $2,400 * 40% = $960

Net sales proceeds = Sales proceeds - Capital gains tax = $60,000 - $960 = $59,040

Therefore, the cash flows is $59,040 net sales proceeds.

(b) Calculate the cash flows if the asset is sold now at $80,000

Capital gains = Sales proceeds - Net book value = $80,000 - $57,600 = $22,400

Capital gains tax = Capital gains * Tax rate = $22,400 * 40% = $8,960

Net sales proceeds = Sales proceeds - Capital gains tax = $80,000 - $8,960 = $71,040

Therefore, the cash flows is $71,040 net sales proceeds.

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Answer:

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The aim of the entire process of decision-making would be faulted if at the end, a course of action is not taken. The decision made at the end of the day, should address the initial concern raised. This decision would also need to be reviewed to ensure that it is the right step.

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Answer:

<u>Transaction 1</u>

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Retained Earnings - No Effect

Net Income - No Effect

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Paid In Capital - Increase by $8,000

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Retained Earnings - No Effect

Net Income - No Effect

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