Answer:
it would have to be a or b i think
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
If you are doing probability with replacement they will all be 1/6 each time.
total there is 6/6. If you draw a yellow card first it's 1/6 then replace it and draw a blue it is still 1/6. so you take those two probabilities and multiply them (1/6)*(1/6)=1/36 1*1=1 and 6*6=36.
Your answer is 1/36
This becomes 10:22, then 5:11.
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Answer:
See below. The answer is incomplete, I couldn't post it.
Step-by-step explanation:
Considering a function
, it is said to be discontinuous when it has a hole or breaks, it means places where
cannot be evaluated. For example, when the denominator equals to 0, it is not defined.
Answer:
a)
b) 
c) 
d) 
Step-by-step explanation:
Let X the random variable that represent the number of material anomalies occurring in a particular region of an aircraft gas-turbine disk. We know that
The probability mass function for the random variable is given by:
And f(x)=0 for other case.
For this distribution the expected value is the same parameter
,
, 
a. Compute both P(X≤4) and P(X<4).
Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:




b. Compute P(4≤X≤ 8).







c. Compute P(8≤ X).


d. What is the probability that the number of anomalies exceeds its mean value by no more than one standard deviation?
The mean is 4 and the deviation is 2, so we want this probability




